PAF Initial test Physics MCQs

Overview of the PAF Initial Test Physics MCQs

Preparing for the PAF initial test physics MCQs is essential for candidates aspiring to join the Pakistan Air Force. These PAF initial test Physics MCQs typically cover fundamental concepts in mechanics, electromagnetism, thermodynamics, and optics, which are crucial for understanding the principles underlying aviation and technology.

To excel, candidates should focus on topics such as Newton’s laws of motion, laws of thermodynamics, and wave properties. Practicing with a variety of MCQs can help reinforce knowledge, improve problem-solving skills, and build confidence, ensuring that candidates are well-prepared for the physics component of the PAF initial tests.

Q: Three resistors of 2 Ohms, 3 Ohms, and 5 Ohms are connected in series with a 12V battery. What is the total resistance and the potential difference across the 5 Ohm resistor?

  • A) 10 Ohms, 5V
  • B) 10 Ohms, 3V
  • C) 10 Ohms, 1.2V
  • D) 10 Ohms, 6V
    Answer: D) 10 Ohms, 6V

Q: The charge carriers in a germanium semiconductor are:

  • A) Electrons
  • B) Holes
  • C) Both (a) and (b)
  • D) None of the above
    Answer: C) Both (a) and (b)

Q: The ability of a material to allow the flow of magnetic lines of force through it is known as:

  • A) Magnetic susceptibility
  • B) Magnetic intensity
  • C) Magnetizing field
  • D) Magnetic permeability
    Answer: D) Magnetic permeability

Q: Which of the following statements about magnetic field lines is incorrect?

  • A) Magnetic field lines never intersect.
  • B) Magnetic field lines never emerge from a point.
  • C) Magnetic field lines are completely straight.
  • D) Magnetic field lines can meet to form closed loops.
    Answer: C) Magnetic field lines are completely straight

Q: The appropriate bandwidth used in telephonic communication is:

  • A) 3000Hz
  • B) 2800Hz
  • C) 3100Hz
  • D) None of the above
    Answer: B) 2800Hz

Q: The electromagnetic waves can be transmitted through which of the following processes?

  • A) Space wave propagation
  • B) Ground wave propagation
  • C) Sky wave propagation
  • D) All of the above
    Answer: D) All of the above

Q: Which one of the following is not a purpose of modulating a signal in transmission?

  • A) Avoid mixing up of signals.
  • B) Increase the size of the antenna.
  • C) Reduce the size of the antenna.
  • D) Reduce larger bandwidth.
    Answer: B) Increase the size of the antenna.

Q: The length of the dipole antenna for a carrier wave of the frequency of 6 x 10^8 Hz is:

  • A) 0.25m
  • B) 0.125m
  • C) 0.5m
  • D) 0.1025m
    Answer: B) 0.125m

Q: Which of the following statements about Amplitude modulation is incorrect?

  • A) It is noisy.
  • B) It is expensive.
  • C) It cannot be used for high-frequency carrier waves.
  • D) Its production and reception are convenient.
    Answer: B) It is expensive

Q: The acceptor level in the p-type semiconductor lies in:

  • A) The top of the valence band
  • B) Bottom of the conduction band
  • C) Top of the conduction band
  • D) None of the above
    Answer: A) The top of the valence band

Q: Which of the following statements about LED (Light Emitting Diode) is correct?

  • A) Fast action
  • B) Low operational voltage
  • C) Short life span
  • D) Both (a) and (b)
    Answer: D) Both (a) and (b)

Q: The device used in satellites to recharge their batteries is:

  • A) Photodiode
  • B) Solar cell
  • C) LED
  • D) Zener diode
    Answer: B) Solar cell

Q: Two amplifiers are connected in series, one after the other, with voltage gains of 10 and 20. Calculate the output signal if the input signal is 0.01V.

  • A) 2V
  • B) 3V
  • C) 1.5V
  • D) 0.5V
    Answer: A) 2V

Q: Rutherford’s model was unable to explain:

  • A) Neutrality of an atom
  • B) Photoelectric effect
  • C) Stability of an atom
  • D) Thermionic emissions
    Answer: C) Stability of an atom

Q: The Balmer series of the hydrogen emission spectrum lies in which region?

  • A) Ultraviolet region
  • B) Visible region
  • C) Far infrared region
  • D) None of the above
    Answer: B) Visible region

Q: Which of the following statements about Gamma rays is incorrect?

  • A) Gamma rays travel in a vacuum with the speed of light.
  • B) Gamma rays have the least penetration power.
  • C) Gamma rays have the least ionizing power.
  • D) Gamma rays are neutral.
    Answer: B) Gamma rays have the least penetration power.

Q: What is the ratio of the radii of the two nuclei with the mass number 1 and 64?

  • A) 1/4
  • B) 1/64
  • C) 1/16
  • D) 1/2
    Answer: A) 1/4

Q: What is the impact on the neutron to proton ratio after the emission of the alpha particle?

  • A) Decreases
  • B) Constant
  • C) Increases
  • D) None of the above
    Answer: C) Increases

Q: Heavy metals emit electrons during which incident radiations?

  • A) Visible light
  • B) Ultraviolet light
  • C) Both (a) and (b)
  • D) None of the above
    Answer: B) Ultraviolet light

Q: What is the impact on the stopping potential with the increase of frequency?

  • A) Decreases
  • B) No impact
  • C) Increases
  • D) None of the above
    Answer: C) Increases

Q: What is the stopping potential applied to a photocell if the maximum kinetic energy of a photoelectron is 6eV?

  • A) 10V
  • B) 2V
  • C) 4V
  • D) 5V
    Answer: D) 5V

Q: The red light cannot produce electrons from a clean zinc metal surface because:

  • A) The energy of a photon of red light is equal to the work function of the zinc.
  • B) The energy of a photon of red light is greater than the work function of the zinc.
  • C) The energy of a photon of red light is less than the work function of the zinc.
  • D) None of the above
    Answer: C) The energy of a photon of red light is less than the work function of the zinc.

Q: The electromagnetic spectrum with a wavelength of 0.1m or 10cm is:

  • A) Visible light
  • B) Short radio waves
  • C) Microwaves
  • D) Gamma rays
    Answer: B) Short radio waves

Q: Which among the following visible spectrum has the frequency of 620nm?

  • A) Blue
  • B) Orange
  • C) Violet
  • D) Indigo
    Answer: B) Orange

Q: The origin of the displacement current:

  • A) Arises due to the time variation of electric flux
  • B) Arises due to motion of charge carriers
  • C) Both (a) and (b)
  • D) None of the above
    Answer: A) Arises due to the time variation of electric flux

Q: The substances where strong magnetism is generated in the same direction of the applied magnetic field are called:

  • A) Paramagnetic substances
  • B) Diamagnetic substances
  • C) Ferromagnetic substances
  • D) None of the above
    Answer: C) Ferromagnetic substances

Q: A Galvanometer with a resistance G has the maximum safe potential difference, Vo. What resistance can be connected in series so that the Galvanometer may become a voltmeter of range nVo volts?

  • A) nG
  • B) (n – 1)G
  • C) (n + 1)G
  • D) nG/2
    Answer: B) (n – 1)G

Q: The losses occurring in the core of the transformer that produces sound and vibrations are known as:

  • A) Humming losses
  • B) Hysteresis losses
  • C) Iron losses
  • D) Copper losses
    Answer: A) Humming losses

Q: What will be the change in the self-inductance of a coil if the number of turns in a solenoid is doubled?

  • A) 2-times
  • B) 4-times
  • C) 8-times
  • D) No effect
    Answer: B) 4-times

Q: The phase difference between the voltages across the inductance and a capacitor in an alternating circuit is:

  • A) 90 degrees
  • B) 270 degrees
  • C) 0 degrees
  • D) 180 degrees
    Answer: D) 180 degrees

Q: The transformer is used to:

  • A) Step up the AC voltage
  • B) Step up the DC voltage
  • C) Step down the AC voltage
  • D) Both (a) and (c)
    Answer: D) Both (a) and (c)
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PAF Initial Test Preparation MCQs

Q: A 30W load is connected to the secondary winding of the transformer. If 0.64 Amperes flows across the load, what is the current in the primary of the transformer?

  • A) 0.32A
  • B) 0.64A
  • C) 4.7A
  • D) 1.28A
    Answer: A) 0.32A

Q: An instrument that comprises only a single convex lens is:

  • A) Refracting telescope
  • B) Compound telescope
  • C) Simple telescope
  • D) Reflecting telescope
    Answer: C) Simple telescope

Q: Which of the following is not a use of the Polaroid?

  • A) Polaroid sheets in sunglasses protect eyes from glare.
  • B) Polaroid is used in 3D pictures.
  • C) Partially polarized light beams show no variation in intensity.
  • D) It is used in the analysis of light beams.
    Answer: C) Partially polarized light beams show no variation in intensity.

Q: The speed of sound in a medium depends on:

  • A) Wavelength
  • B) Nature
  • C) Direction of propagation
  • D) Intensity
    Answer: A) Wavelength

Q: Which light is deviated more by a prism?

  • A) Red
  • B) Blue
  • C) Orange
  • D) Yellow
    Answer: B) Blue

Q: What is the refractive index of the medium with a polarizing angle of 60 degrees?

  • A) 0.333
  • B) 0.577
  • C) 0.866
  • D) 1.732
    Answer: D) 1.732

Q: What is the focal length of the combination of a convex lens (30cm) and a concave lens (20cm) in contact?

  • A) -50cm
  • B) -60cm
  • C) 10cm
  • D) 60cm
    Answer: B) -60cm

Q: What is the magnifying power of a small telescope with an objective focal length of 144cm and an eyepiece focal length of 6.0cm?

  • A) -150
  • B) 24
  • C) -24
  • D) 138
    Answer: C) -24

Q. ______ is a vector quantity:

  • a) Distance
  • b) Mass
  • c) Time
  • d) Weight
    Answer: (d) Weight

Q. The centripetal force of a body moving in a circular path is measured by:

  • a) Increase in its mass
  • b) Increase in its volume
  • c) Increase in its density
  • d) Decrease in speed
    Answer: (a) Increase in its mass

Q. To find the least count of calipers, the smallest division of the main scale is:

  • a) Added to the number of divisions on the vernier scale
  • b) Multiplied by the number of divisions on the vernier scale
  • c) Subtracted from the number of divisions on the vernier scale
  • d) Divided by the number of divisions on the vernier scale
    Answer: (d) Divided by the number of divisions on the vernier scale

Q. The mechanical advantage of a machine is equal to:

  • a) Its output
  • b) Input x output
  • c) Input/output
  • d) Output/input
    Answer: (c) Input/output

Q. The mass of the earth is:

  • a) 6.62 × 10^24 kg
  • b) 6.02 × 10^23 kg
  • c) 6 × 10^24 kg
  • d) 6.67 × 10^24 kg
    Answer: (a) 6.62 × 10^24 kg

Q. The increase of temperature of a body in unit mass through 1°C is called:

  • a) Internal heat
  • b) Latent heat
  • c) Specific heat
  • d) Heat of fusion
    Answer: (c) Specific heat

Q. The relation between lever fulcrum and effort was discovered by:

  • a) Archimedes
  • b) Galileo
  • c) Newton
  • d) Euclid
    Answer: (a) Archimedes

Q. The instrument used to measure air pressure is called:

  • a) Hypsometer
  • b) Barometer
  • c) Manometer
  • d) Galvanometer
    Answer: (b) Barometer

Q. The relation between stress and strain is known as:

  • a) Hooke’s law
  • b) Archimedes’ rule
  • c) Young’s modulus
  • d) None of the above
    Answer: (a) Hooke’s law

Q. Sound requires some ______ to travel: –

  • a) Air
  • b) Vibrations
  • c) Medium
  • d) Vacuum
    Answer: (c) Medium

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Physics Tests Quiz (Matric Level)

1 / 25

Unit of Torque is ………….

2 / 25

If the current is flowing from bottom to top then the direction of magnetic line of force will be:-

3 / 25

Kinetic energy of mass spring system is maximum at:-

4 / 25

Whenever there is an excess of electrons on a body, the body will be charged:-

5 / 25

Front of eye make a:-

6 / 25

If a force will be applied on a smaller area, pressure will become:-

7 / 25

Loudness of sound depends on_____of vibrating body:-

8 / 25

NAND operation is simply AND operation followed by?

9 / 25

Hold down the end of the current carrying solenoid in front of you, if the direction of current flow through this end is anti-clockwise it would be:-

10 / 25

One calorie is equal to___ Joules:-

11 / 25

Arm is _______ kind of lever.

12 / 25

Al-Beruni told that the earth was:-

13 / 25

A nut has been tightened by a force of 180 N using an 8 cm long spanner. What length of a spanner is required to loosen the same nut with 150 N force?

14 / 25

First condition of equilibrium is:-

15 / 25

If intensity 1 of any unknown sound is 10 time greater than the intensity 1o of faintest sound then its sound level is:-

16 / 25

Vo = √gh(R+h)   is the orbital speed of _____:-

17 / 25

A circuit which converts digital signals to analogue signals is called:-

18 / 25

Seesaw is a _____ kind of liver:-

19 / 25

Release of energy by the sun is due to:-

20 / 25

Who discovered proton?

21 / 25

Semiconductors have:-

22 / 25

Which one of the following converts light energy into electrical energy?

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A transformer has 100 turns in primary and 500 turns in secondary. If 6 volt D.C is applied across its primary , the voltage induced across its secondary would be:-

 

24 / 25

Which of the following is not processing:-

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One of the basic property of all oscillatory systems is

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