Pak Navy operation Branch MCQs

Table of Contents

How to Prepare Pak Navy Operation Branch MCQs

The Pakistan Navy Operation Branch stands as a prestigious and challenging career path, responsible for the core maritime defense and strategic operations of the nation. Securing a position in this elite branch requires candidates to excel in a highly competitive examination, where the Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) segment is a critical filter.

If you want to prepare initial tests of Pak Navy operation branch MCQs which have been given in the in the initial tests of Pak Navy Short Service Commission exam then do practice of the following mcqs which are very very important to pass the initial academic tests of Pak Navy operation branch mcqs. Mastering this specific question format is not just about memorization, but about developing sharp analytical skills and swift decision-making abilities—qualities essential for a future naval officer tasked with safeguarding Pakistan’s maritime frontiers.

Related: How to Join Pak Navy Operation Branch through SSC?

If you apply in the Short Service Commission of Pak Navy then following tests are included in the initial tests.

1. Intelligence Tests

  • Verbal Intelligence Tests
  • Non-Verbal Intelligence Tests

2. Academic Tests

  • English Test
  • Mathematics Test
  • Physics Test
  • Chemistry Test

Verbal Intelligence Tests

Q: In a bus with 30 passengers, 2/3 are men. What percentage are women?
(a) 20%
(b) 30%
(c) 33.33%
(d) 40%
Answer: (c) 33.33%

Q: A man walks north, turns left, then turns right. What is his final direction?
(a) North
(b) West
(c) East
(d) South
Answer: (c) East

Q: If you face north and turn 135° clockwise, then 225° anti-clockwise, what is your new direction?
(a) South-East
(b) North-West
(c) South-West
(d) North-East
Answer: (a) South-East

Q: Monday is to February as Friday is to ______
(a) May
(b) July
(c) June
(d) March
Answer: (c) June

Q: Gun is to Soldier as ______ is to Blacksmith.
(a) Hammer
(b) Plane
(c) Nail
(d) Spaceship
Answer: (a) Hammer

Q: Which one is different from the rest?
(a) CE
(b) EG
(c) AC
(d) GI
(e) JJ
Answer: (e) JJ

Q: Which one is different from the rest?
(a) AD
(b) IL
(c) QS
(d) MP
(e) EH
Answer: (c) QS

Q: What is the next number in the series: 4, 8, 24, 96, ____?
(a) 408
(b) 556
(c) 804
(d) 664
(e) 480
Answer: (e) 480

Q: What comes next in the series: 17, 3, 51, 19, 3, ____?
(a) 3
(b) 57
(c) 48
(d) 75
Answer: (b) 57

Q: Which one is out of the list?
(a) Mare
(b) Fox
(c) Lass
(d) Hen
Answer: (c) Lass

Q: What comes next in the series: A, C, E, ____?
(a) H
(b) I
(c) G
(d) K
Answer: (c) G

Q: Which one is out of the list?
(a) Lahore
(b) Punjab
(c) Pakistan
(d) Kabul
Answer: (d) Kabul

Q: What comes next in the series: 2, ½, ⅛, ____?
(a) 1/16
(b) 1/64
(c) 1/32
(d) 1/18
Answer: (c) 1/32

Q: Which one is different from the rest?
(a) Spaceship
(b) Ship
(c) Aircraft
(d) Cycle
Answer: (d) Cycle

Q: Which one is different from the rest?
(a) DG
(b) HK
(c) AC
(d) LO
Answer: (c) AC

Q: INK is to PEN as ______ is to Pencil?
(a) Lead
(b) Notebook
(c) Book
(d) Knife
Answer: (a) Lead

Q: If FELLOW is coded as 465531 then ALLOW is coded as?
(a) 13565
(b) 65531
(c) 35651
(d) 16535
Answer: (b) 65531

Q: What comes next in the series: E, V, E, W, E, X, E, Y, ____?
(a) E, Z
(b) E, P
(c) E, W
(d) E, Q
Answer: (a) E, Z

Q: Which one is different from the rest?
(a) Mother
(b) Uncle
(c) Brother
(d) Son
Answer: (b) Uncle

Q: What letter comes alphabetically in order in the word “Drawing”?
(a) D
(b) W
(c) A
(d) G
Answer: (d) G

Practice Tests of Verbal Intelligence Tests in Pak Navy Operation Branch MCQs

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Verbal Intelligence Tests Quiz

1 / 25

Lion: Animal : : Flower : _______ 

2 / 25

Gram is to weight as knot is to-----------------.

3 / 25

1/5 is to 1/10 as 2/3 is to------------------.

4 / 25

Crumb : Bread :: ?

5 / 25

What will come next ?

100     75         55      40      30      ?

6 / 25

63,   48,   35,   _____,    15

7 / 25

What is 60% of 50?

8 / 25

Hot : Oven : : Cold : ? 

9 / 25

How many continents in the world?

10 / 25

Write the letter  which falls in the middle  of D and T in the alphabetic order ?

11 / 25

Give the number of pair which is different from the others?

12 / 25

A husband and wife had four married sons and each of these had five children. How many members were in family?

13 / 25

Isosceles is to triangle  as square is to------------------.

14 / 25

Which one is out of list:-

15 / 25

 DFE, JIH, MLN, ?, VUT 

16 / 25

Necklace : Adornment :: ? 

17 / 25

What number come next ?   3,   11,   4,   13,    5,   15,   6,   17,   7,    ?

18 / 25

Suppose a series is 1, 9, 25, 49, ?, 121, the number comes at the place of question mark in the given series is -

19 / 25

Find the odd one out from the following:

20 / 25

  1. All flowers in the garden are red.
  2. Some of the flowers are roses.

III. All roses in the garden are red.

If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

21 / 25

A  student got 50% marks out of 1050. how  many marks did he obtain?

22 / 25

B D E G H___:-

23 / 25

Horse : Mare :: ?

24 / 25

 T, R, P, N, L, ?, ? 

25 / 25

If crate is to excrete then cute is to:-

Your score is

The average score is 52%

Q: Synonym of “largesse” is ______.
(a) greatness
(b) generosity
(c) anger
(d) clumsiness
Answer: (b) generosity

Q: Synonym of “tremulous” is ______.
(a) domineering
(b) frantic
(c) inadequate
(d) trembling
Answer: (d) trembling

Q: Synonym of “facade” is ______?
(a) embankment
(b) cosmetic
(c) building front
(d) long arcade
Answer: (c) building front

Q: Synonym of “contemplative” is ______?
(a) robust
(b) helpful
(c) thoughtful
(d) devious
Answer: (c) thoughtful

Q: Synonym of “indigenous” is ______?
(a) wealthy
(b) having stomach trouble
(c) native
(d) scholarly
Answer: (c) native

Q: Synonym of “unobtrusive” is ______?
(a) clumsy
(b) self evident
(c) skillful
(d) discreet
Answer: (d) discreet

Q: Synonym of “abide” is ______?
(a) loaf
(b) approve
(c) endure
(d) suspend
Answer: (c) endure

Q: Synonym of “impair” is ______?
(a) weaken
(b) mend
(c) entreat
(d) corrupt
Answer: (a) weaken

Q: Synonym of “ordeal” is ______?
(a) lengthy time
(b) adventure
(c) fair trade
(d) painful experience
Answer: (d) painful experience

Q: Synonym of “implant” is ______?
(a) inculcate
(b) till
(c) hybridize
(d) transplant
Answer: (a) inculcate

Q: Synonym of “impale” is ______?
(a) terrify
(b) entrape
(c) transfix
(d) summon for jury duty
Answer: (c) transfix

Q: Synonym of “odium” is ______?
(a) hatred
(b) repulsive smell
(c) clumsiness
(d) fear
Answer: (a) hatred

Q: Synonym of “hamlet” is ______?
(a) actor
(b) benefactor
(c) introvert
(d) village
Answer: (d) village

Q: Synonym of “abscond” is ______?
(a) to depart secretly
(b) yield
(c) abdicate
(d) resign
Answer: (a) to depart secretly

Q: Synonym of “lackluster” is ______?
(a) dull
(b) fitful
(c) steady
(d) obscure
Answer: (a) dull

Q: Synonym of “endeavor” is ______?
(a) to ignore
(b) intend
(c) attempt earnestly
(d) bring about
Answer: (c) attempt earnestly

Q: Synonym of “reverie” is ______?
(a) daydream
(b) adoration
(c) awakening
(d) meeting
Answer: (a) daydream

Q: Synonym of “pretension” is ______?
(a) absurdity
(b) anxious feeling
(c) undisputed
(d) claim
Answer: (d) claim

Q: Synonym of “embargo” is ______?
(a) license
(b) freight
(c) tax
(d) prohibition
Answer: (d) prohibition

Q: Synonym of “perfunctory” is ______?
(a) normal
(b) done superficially
(c) blunt
(d) prepared in advance
Answer: (b) done superficially

Q: Synonym of “inexplicable” is ______?
(a) frustrating
(b) questionable
(c) unexplainable
(d) entangled
Answer: (c) unexplainable

Q: Synonym of “pedagogue” is ______?
(a) demagogue
(b) peddler
(c) pupil
(d) teacher
Answer: (d) teacher

Q: Synonym of “tenable” is ______?
(a) experimental
(b) long lasting
(c) flimsy
(d) defensible
Answer: (d) defensible

Q: Synonym of “frugality” is ______?
(a) extravagance
(b) ripening
(c) thrift
(d) resentment
Answer: (c) thrift

Q: Synonym of “disconcert” is ______?
(a) sing in harmony
(b) pretend
(c) interrupt
(d) confuse
Answer: (d) confuse

Q: Synonym of “bifurcate” is ______?
(a) to fork or divide
(b) belch
(c) think meditatively
(d) explain at length
Answer: (a) to fork or divide

Q: Synonym of “garrulous” is ______?
(a) laconic
(b) strangling
(c) wordy
(d) frozen
Answer: (c) wordy

Q: Synonym of “tenacity” is ______?
(a) persistence
(b) game played on
(c) ecstasy
(d) indifference
Answer: (a) persistence

Q: Synonym of “debilitate” is ______?
(a) argue
(b) engage
(c) enfeeble
(d) soothe
Answer: (c) enfeeble

Q: Synonym of “PEEL” is ______?
(a) Dance
(b) Surprise
(c) Pull Off
(d) Look at
Answer: (c) Pull Off

Q: Synonym of “Lambast” is ______?
(a) Entomb
(b) Reprimand
(c) Adore
(d) Forbear
Answer: (b) Reprimand

Practice of English Mock Tests included in Pak Navy Operation Branch MCQs

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English Tests Quiz

1 / 25

CHOOSE CORRECT FORM OF VERB FOR THE FOLLOWING:-

After you _____ I went to sleep.

2 / 25

Choose the word with correct spelling:-

3 / 25

'Preserve' means:-

4 / 25

Choose the accurate antonym of the word (Mendacity):-

5 / 25

My mother _____ to me for ten years:-

6 / 25

Choose the accurate antonym of the word (Salacious):-

7 / 25

Choose the accurate antonym of the word (Native):-

8 / 25

He quarreled----------me-----------a trifle.

9 / 25

The word 'crippled' means:-

10 / 25

Choose the correct meaning of the word ( Myopic):-

 

11 / 25

Choose the accurate antonym of the word (Demur):-

12 / 25

This is a very __-_ seminar:-

13 / 25

She did not make a false statement. This is an ____ sentence:-

14 / 25

Drug addiction is a very  serious threat. The underlined word is a/an:-

15 / 25

She closed the door.The underlined word is a/an:-

16 / 25

Choose the  word with correct spelling:-

17 / 25

She wrote article in the newspaper. This is a ____ sentence:-

18 / 25

DISTINGUISH AS ADVERB, PREPOSITION,OR CONJUNCTION, EACH OF THE ITALICIZED WORD IN THE FOLLOWING SENTENCE.

He arrived after the meeting.

19 / 25

Choose the word with correct spelling-

20 / 25

This is a very informative  seminar. The underlined word is a/an:-

21 / 25

I expect that I shall get a prize. The underlined clause is a_____ clause:-

22 / 25

When is the school____:-

23 / 25

Choose the accurate antonym of the word (Flicker):-

24 / 25

Choose the accurate meaning of the word (Downy):-

25 / 25

The baby ____ for milk now:-

Your score is

The average score is 46%

Q: The value of sin30° is: Choose the correct option.
(a) 1/2
(b) √3/2
(c) √2/2
(d) 1
Answer: (a) 1/2

Q: In a right triangle, if one angle is 30°, the other non-right angle is: Choose the correct option.
(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 60°
(d) 90°
Answer: (c) 60°

Q: The area of a circle with radius r is: Choose the correct option.
(a) πr
(b) 2πr
(c) πr²
(d) (4/3)πr³
Answer: (c) πr²

Q: A triangle with all sides equal is called: Choose the correct option.
(a) Isosceles
(b) Scalene
(c) Equilateral
(d) Right
Answer: (c) Equilateral

Q: The sum of interior angles in a quadrilateral is: Choose the correct option.
(a) 180°
(b) 270°
(c) 360°
(d) 540°
Answer: (c) 360°

Q: log(ab)=: Choose the correct option.
(a) loga+logb
(b) loga−logb
(c) alogb
(d) bloga
Answer: (a) loga+logb

Q: If 10ˣ=1000, then x=: Choose the correct option.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 10
Answer: (b) 3

Q: The value of 2³×2⁴ is: Choose the correct option.
(a) 2⁷
(b) 2¹²
(c) 4⁷
(d) 8³
Answer: (a) 2⁷

Q: log₁₀100=: Choose the correct option.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 10
(d) 100
Answer: (b) 2

Q: Scientific notation for 0.000043 is: Choose the correct option.
(a) 4.3×10⁻⁵
(b) 4.3×10⁻⁴
(c) 43×10⁻⁶
(d) 0.43×10⁻⁴
Answer: (a) 4.3×10⁻⁵

Q: If A={1,3,5} and B={2,4,6}, then A∩B=: Choose the correct option.
(a) {1,2,3,4,5,6}
(b) {1,3,5}
(c) {}
(d) {2,4,6}
Answer: (c) {}

Q: The complement of set A in universal set U is denoted by: Choose the correct option.
(a) A′
(b) Aᶜ
(c) U−A
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above

Q: The Cartesian product A×B of sets A={1,2} and B={a,b} is: Choose the correct option.
(a) {(1,a),(1,b),(2,a),(2,b)}
(b) {(a,1),(b,1),(a,2),(b,2)}
(c) {1,2,a,b}
(d) {(1,2),(a,b)}
Answer: (a) {(1,a),(1,b),(2,a),(2,b)}

Q: A relation where every element in the domain maps to exactly one element in the range is called: Choose the correct option.
(a) Function
(b) One-to-one
(c) Onto
(d) Bijective
Answer: (a) Function

Q: The number of subsets of {a,b,c} is: Choose the correct option.
(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 9
Answer: (c) 8

Q: The determinant of [[2,3],[4,6]] is: Choose the correct option.
(a) 0
(b) 12
(c) 24
(d) -12
Answer: (a) 0

Q: A matrix with determinant zero is called: Choose the correct option.
(a) Identity matrix
(b) Singular matrix
(c) Diagonal matrix
(d) Scalar matrix
Answer: (b) Singular matrix

Q: The inverse of a matrix A is denoted by: Choose the correct option.
(a) A⁻¹
(b) Aᵀ
(c) A*
(d) A′
Answer: (a) A⁻¹

Practice of Math Tests (Matric Level) included in Pak Navy Operation Branch MCQs

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Maths Tests Quiz (Matric Level)

1 / 25

If a²-b²=30 and a-b=5 then find the value of a+b=___.

2 / 25

The nature of the roots of equation ax²+bx+c=0 is determined by:

3 / 25

Cot90 = ?

4 / 25

How many waves of frequency distribution ___.

5 / 25

The x²+6x+9 is a square of ____.

6 / 25

If u∝v² then :

7 / 25

What would be added in x²+1 to complete its perfect square.

8 / 25

If x+1/x=a and x² =1/x²=b² then _____.

9 / 25

The set of data that appears most is called _______?

10 / 25

Aˣ(Bˣ x Cˣ) = (Aˣ x Bˣ) Cˣ is ……………………?

11 / 25

The relation {(1,2),(2,3),(3,3),(3,4)} is :

12 / 25

The solution set of x=-x is ___.

13 / 25

If Determinant of the matrix Is zero then Matrix is called …………..?

14 / 25

(2-6)1/2=____.

15 / 25

The bottom side of the triangle is called ________.

16 / 25

log8x =2/3 then find the value of x.

17 / 25

The ratio of 32m and 80m is?

18 / 25

Mean proportion of 21 and 189 is ………………

19 / 25

If x=t² and y=t then eliminate t.

20 / 25

When both sides of an inequlity is multiplied by -1 then it changes from greater than to___.

21 / 25

The discriminant of ax²+bx+c=0 is :

22 / 25

2/5x2 -5x +7 is a polynomial on ____.

23 / 25

If sum of the angles is 90 then angles are called ______.

24 / 25

If a chord cuts at the center of the circle then it is called ______.

25 / 25

Factors of 8x³ +27y³ are:

Your score is

The average score is 42%

Practice of Math Tests (Intermediate Level) included in Pak Navy Operation Branch MCQs

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Maths Tests Quiz (Inter Level)

1 / 25

If x -1/x = 5 then find the value of x² + 1/x² = ___.

2 / 25

secθ. cosecθ .sinθ .cosθ =_____.

3 / 25

The perpendicular distance of a line 12x+5y=7 from origin is:

4 / 25

Z = 8x + 10y, subject to 2x + y ≥ 1, 2x + 3y ≥ 15, y ≥ 2, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0. The minimum value of Z occurs at

5 / 25

The number of terms in expansion of (x-3)10is:

6 / 25

The simplest form of 3 log 2-2 log 5 is ___.

7 / 25

The region represented by the inequalities
x ≥ 6, y ≥ 2, 2x + y ≤ 0, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0 is

8 / 25

Period of tan π/2 is :

9 / 25

If U= (3,7) and V= (8,3) then find the value of U+V ___.

10 / 25

𝒙 + 𝒂 is a factor of 𝒙𝒏 + 𝒂𝒏 when 𝒏 is

11 / 25

57 is the sum of ____ odd consecutive numbers.

12 / 25

The number whose sum is -13 and product is -30 are___.

13 / 25

 A mixed form of fraction is :

14 / 25

3x²+5 is _____ order polynomial.

15 / 25

The complex cube roots of unity are………………. each other.

16 / 25

If ΔABC is right triangle , the law of cosines reduces to:

17 / 25

The HCF of a²-b² and a³-b³ is ___.

18 / 25

Log 10=____.

19 / 25

Equation of the line in the form of xcosα + ysinα = p is:

20 / 25

Cosec θ=____.

21 / 25

With usual notation in triangle ΔABC , if a=7,  b=3,c=5 then the value of s is equal to:

22 / 25

[  ] is called_____.

23 / 25

The real part of complex number (cosθ + ιsinθ)n where n ∈ z will be:

24 / 25

4x² - 3x + 4 is a polynomial of degree____.

25 / 25

The 2nd term of the expansion of (1-2x)1/3 is:

Your score is

The average score is 36%

Practice of Math Tests (Graduation Level) included in Pak Navy Operation Branch MCQs

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Maths Tests Quiz (Graduation Level)

1 / 25

How many  different   non isomorphic   Abelian   groups  of  order   8 are there :-

2 / 25

If x *y  = x2 +y2 -xy , then the  value  of  9 * 11  is :-

3 / 25

17%  of   1620 :-

4 / 25

The  numerical  value  of   5/sec²θ + 2/1 + cot² θ + 3 sin²θ is :-

5 / 25

The  value  of  y'/x'  in terms of  angle   0  is  given by :-

6 / 25

The  sum  of   the  interior  angles  of  a  kite  is  equal to ;-

7 / 25

In a  poisson distribution  , the mean  and variance   are  equal :-

8 / 25

The  LU  method  of  factorization  was  introduced   by the mathematician ____:-

9 / 25

When we  throw   two  dice   then what  is  the   probability  of  getting  a sum  9 :-

10 / 25

If A : B : C = 2: 3 : 4 then A/B : B/C : C/A  is  equal to :-

11 / 25

The  sum  of  the  square of three   numbers  is  138,   while  the sum  of their products  taken two at time  is 131 .  Their sum is :-

12 / 25

Which  is  another  name  for   Jacobi's method :-

13 / 25

Pie chart is  suitable   to divide  the  component   of  factor in :-

14 / 25

A  quadrillion  has ___________ zeros :-

15 / 25

Find  the  average of the first  20  natural  numbers ;-

16 / 25

Find  the  ratio  of  the  areas  of  incircle   and  circumcircle  of  a  square :-

17 / 25

What is the sum of first 70 even numbers:-

18 / 25

Intersection  of  subgroup is  a ;-

19 / 25

If ∑ p(x) = k² -8  then ,   the  value  of  k is ;-

20 / 25

What  number  is  20% of  80 :-

21 / 25

The  average  of  the  first  five    multiples  of  9  is :-

22 / 25

The  speed  of   waves  is  8 m/s  and  wavelength  2.5 m, frequency  of  this  wave  will  be :-

23 / 25

The  default  key  size   of  RC2  Feistel  Cipher  is :-

24 / 25

If  a/b = c/d  then alternendo  property   is  ;-

25 / 25

For  a  normal  distribution,  its  mean,  median , mode  are  equal :-

Your score is

The average score is 32%

High scoring and best repeated Pak Navy operation branch mcqs are given below.

Q: When the net force is directly proportional to the displacement from the mean position and is always directed towards the mean position is called ______.
(a) Circular Motion
(b) Simple Harmonic Motion
(c) Rotational Motion
(d) Linear Motion
Answer: (b) Simple Harmonic Motion

Q: To and fro motion of a body about its mean position is called ______.
(a) Circular Motion
(b) Simple Harmonic Motion
(c) Rotational Motion
(d) Linear Motion
Answer: (b) Simple Harmonic Motion

Q: In simple harmonic motion, acceleration is always directed toward the ______.
(a) Extreme Position
(b) Mean Position
(c) Left Side
(d) Right Side
Answer: (b) Mean Position

Q: In simple harmonic motion, acceleration is always directly proportional to the to its ______ from the mean position.
(a) Velocity
(b) Displacement
(c) Time
(d) Frequency
Answer: (b) Displacement

Q: In simple harmonic motion, acceleration will be ______ at mean position.
(a) Maximum
(b) Minimum
(c) Zero
(d) Constant
Answer: (c) Zero

Q: In simple harmonic motion, acceleration will be ______ at extreme position.
(a) Maximum
(b) Minimum
(c) Zero
(d) Constant
Answer: (a) Maximum

Q: In simple harmonic motion, velocity will be ______ at mean position.
(a) Maximum
(b) Minimum
(c) Zero
(d) Constant
Answer: (a) Maximum

Q: In simple harmonic motion, velocity will be ______ at extreme position.
(a) Maximum
(b) Minimum
(c) Zero
(d) Constant
Answer: (c) Zero

Q: One complete round trip of vibrating body about its mean position is called ______.
(a) Half Vibration
(b) One Vibration
(c) Quarter Vibration
(d) Double Vibration
Answer: (b) One Vibration

Q: Time taken by a vibrating body to complete one vibration is called ______.
(a) Frequency
(b) Time Period
(c) Amplitude
(d) Wavelength
Answer: (b) Time Period

Q: The number of vibrations or cycles of a vibrating body in one second is called its ______.
(a) Time Period
(b) Frequency
(c) Amplitude
(d) Wavelength
Answer: (b) Frequency

Q: Frequency is reciprocal of ______.
(a) Time Period
(b) Amplitude
(c) Wavelength
(d) Velocity
Answer: (a) Time Period

Q: The maximum displacement of a vibrating body on either side from its mean position is called ______.
(a) Time Period
(b) Frequency
(c) Amplitude
(d) Wavelength
Answer: (c) Amplitude

Q: Christian Huygens invented the pendulum clock in ______.
(a) 1556
(b) 1600
(c) 1656
(d) 1700
Answer: (c) 1656

Q: Christian Huygens was inspired by the work of ______.
(a) Newton
(b) Galileo
(c) Einstein
(d) Faraday
Answer: (b) Galileo

Q: Christian Huygens developed the first ______ that could accurately measured time.
(a) Sundial
(b) Water Clock
(c) Pendulum Clock
(d) Digital Clock
Answer: (c) Pendulum Clock

Q: The oscillations of a system in the presence of some resistive force are called ______.
(a) Free Oscillations
(b) Damped Oscillations
(c) Forced Oscillations
(d) Natural Oscillations
Answer: (b) Damped Oscillations

Q: A disturbance in the medium which causes the particles of the medium to undergo vibratory motion about their mean position in equal intervals of time is called ______.
(a) Particle
(b) Wave
(c) Pulse
(d) Vibration
Answer: (b) Wave

Q: There are ______ categories of waves.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Answer: (b) Two

Q: There are two categories of waves i.e., Mechanical waves and ______.
(a) Transverse Waves
(b) Longitudinal Waves
(c) Electromagnetic Waves
(d) Surface Waves
Answer: (c) Electromagnetic Waves

Q: Waves which require any medium for their propagation are called ______ waves.
(a) Electromagnetic
(b) Mechanical
(c) Transverse
(d) Longitudinal
Answer: (b) Mechanical

Q: Water waves, sound waves and waves produced on the string and spring are called ______ waves.
(a) Electromagnetic
(b) Mechanical
(c) Transverse
(d) Longitudinal
Answer: (b) Mechanical

Q: Waves which do not require any medium for their propagation are called ______ waves.
(a) Electromagnetic
(b) Mechanical
(c) Transverse
(d) Longitudinal
Answer: (a) Electromagnetic

Q: Radio waves, television waves, X-rays, heat and light waves are examples of ______ waves.
(a) Electromagnetic
(b) Mechanical
(c) Transverse
(d) Longitudinal
Answer: (a) Electromagnetic

Q: Longitudinal waves move ______ through solids than through gases or liquids.
(a) Slower
(b) Faster
(c) At Same Speed
(d) Not at All
Answer: (b) Faster

Practice Tests of Physics (Matric Level) for Preparation of Pak Navy Operation Branch MCQs

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Physics Tests Quiz (Matric Level)

1 / 25

According____ law, the applied vantage is directly proportional to the current flowing through the circuit.

2 / 25

The relation between time, speed and distance is:-

3 / 25

Which is an example of longitudinal waves:-

4 / 25

Which instrument is most suitable to measure the internal diameter of a test tube?

5 / 25

Along which a force act is called?

6 / 25

The graph  between potential energy and amplitude in case of SHM is:-

7 / 25

If number of turns in primary coil is less than number of turns in secondary coils then it is................. transformer.

8 / 25

The transformer in which ratio of primary and secondary always remains more than 1 is called ___________ transformer.

9 / 25

Nuclei with atomic number 1 to 82 are?

10 / 25

Due to emission of β-rays atomic number of atom is increased by:-

11 / 25

In Newton’s Third Law reaction acts on …………..?

12 / 25

In international system of measurement the value of g is____:- ²

13 / 25

The force and friction are in……………direction.

14 / 25

The relation between stress and strain is known as_________

15 / 25

The branch of science concerned with the nature and properties of matter and energy is called……………

16 / 25

Racing cars are made stable by?

17 / 25

What is a voltage cross a 6Ω resistor when 3A of current passes through it:-

18 / 25

In motion of simple pendulum restoring force is provided by:-

19 / 25

A force of 10 N is making an angle of 30° with the horizontal. Its horizontal component will be:-

20 / 25

SI unit of power is:-

21 / 25

The motion of a simple pendulum is________.

22 / 25

The unit of frequency is:-

23 / 25

A transformer has 100 turns in primary and 500 turns in secondary. If 6 volt D.C is applied across its primary , the voltage induced across its secondary would be:-

 

24 / 25

The amount of work done in bringing a unit positive charge from infinity to that point is called:-

25 / 25

Hydraulic press works on:-

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Practice Tests of Physics (Intermediate Level) for Preparation of Pak Navy Operation Branch MCQs

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Physics Tests Quiz (Inter Level)

1 / 25

A heavy disc is rotating with uniform angular velocity w about its own axis. A piece of wax sticks to it. The angular velocity of the disc will:-

2 / 25

The velocity of sound is not affected by the change in:-

3 / 25

The density of water is:-

4 / 25

When the displacement is half of the amplitude, then what fraction of total energy of a simple harmonic oscillator is kinetic:-

5 / 25

If K.E becomes four time of its initial value the new momentum will be:-

6 / 25

If there is super position of two waves of same frequency which are exactly out of phase then resultant displacement:-

7 / 25

The dimension of coefficient of viscosity are:-

8 / 25

Zero error is the example of:-

9 / 25

Such a surface at which all the points have the same phase of vibration is known as:-

10 / 25

While moving down on an inclined plane at the same time, then at the bottom, the velocity of:-

11 / 25

Which expressions is correct for the time period of  a simple pendulum:-

12 / 25

If a body of mass "m" is accelerating uniformly then what kind of force might be acting on it:-

13 / 25

Ballistic missile are used only for:-

14 / 25

In SHM, the velocity of a particle is maximum at:-

15 / 25

Velocity of efflux is measured by the relation:-

16 / 25

The total energy of vibrating mass and spring is:-

17 / 25

One radian is equal to:-

18 / 25

Two forces act together on an object then magnitude of their resultant is maximum when the angle between the forces is:-

19 / 25

The quantity 2s/r , where s is the surface tension and r is the radius of curvature, has the dimension of:-

20 / 25

At the open end of a organ pipe:-

21 / 25

Rotting of biomass in a closed tank produces biogas. This closed tan is called:-

22 / 25

A heat engine is a device which converts thermal energy to:-

23 / 25

Salivary amylase act best at pH:-

24 / 25

In gravitational field, if the displacement is in the direction of gravitational force the work done will be:-

25 / 25

A projectile is thrown upward with velocity νι, making angle θ with the horizontal. The maximum horizontal range is given by:-

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Practice Tests of Physics (Graduation Level) for Preparation of Pak Navy Operation Branch MCQs

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Physics Tests Quiz (Graduation Level)

1 / 25

The spoke used in the wheel of a bicycle increase its:-

2 / 25

After long period of the use of a grey spot develops on the inside of the bulb. This is because the dust inside the bulb condense on the top:-

3 / 25

Total number of  magnetic  field lines passing  through an area is called :-

4 / 25

Rise of oil a wick is due to;-

5 / 25

As  the x rays  pass  through  matter,  it's  intensity ;-

6 / 25

The nature of borax solution is:-

7 / 25

The density of the liquid when heated:-

8 / 25

Which type of coal produces most heat per unit;-

9 / 25

Should car have bumpers that collapse under impact:-

10 / 25

Graph of  resistance  of  thermistor  to  temperature is :-

11 / 25

Number of  oscillations per unit  time  is  called ;-

12 / 25

Fields  that  act  on object   with masses  are ;-

13 / 25

Value of  sampled  signal  is  used  to produce  a  ;-

14 / 25

Projectile  will  attain  its  maximum  range  if  it  is  fired  at an angle  of  :-

15 / 25

Dynamo is device for converting mechanical energy into _________:-

16 / 25

An object travelling   with constant  velocity has ;-

17 / 25

A  car is  travelling  at  15 m/s  ,  the  distance  it  will  travel  in  1  hour is ;-

18 / 25

If the  magnetic  flux  density  and  current  at  right angles ,  then  components   of  force  acting   on the  conductor is:-

19 / 25

Who was first proposed the absolute scale of temperature:-

20 / 25

It is impossible to cause heat to flow from a cold body to hot body with expenditure of work:-

21 / 25

As the length of wire increases, the resistance of the conductor____________:-

22 / 25

To  limited current  in LED , resistor  should be connected in :-

23 / 25

Rate  of  falling  object  in vacuum  is  ;-

24 / 25

If E < V , then Schrodinger Equation will be:-

25 / 25

Which is used for sun glasses;-

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Q: Which blood cells are responsible for immunity?
(a) Red blood cells
(b) White blood cells
(c) Platelets
(d) Plasma
Answer: (b) White blood cells

Q: The normal human body temperature is approximately:
(a) 35°C
(b) 37°C
(c) 40°C
(d) 42°C
Answer: (b) 37°C

Q: Which of the following is NOT a function of the kidney?
(a) Filtration of blood
(b) Regulation of blood pressure
(c) Production of bile
(d) Maintenance of electrolyte balance
Answer: (c) Production of bile

Q: The functional unit of the kidney is:
(a) Neuron
(b) Nephron
(c) Alveoli
(d) Villi
Answer: (b) Nephron

Q: Which part of the brain controls balance and coordination?
(a) Cerebrum
(b) Cerebellum
(c) Medulla oblongata
(d) Hypothalamus
Answer: (b) Cerebellum

Q: The hormone insulin is produced by:
(a) Liver
(b) Pancreas
(c) Pituitary gland
(d) Thyroid gland
Answer: (b) Pancreas

Q: Which of the following is a communicable disease?
(a) Diabetes
(b) Hypertension
(c) Tuberculosis
(d) Arthritis
Answer: (c) Tuberculosis

Q: Which of the following is NOT a state of matter?
(a) Solid
(b) Liquid
(c) Gas
(d) Energy
Answer: (d) Energy

Q: The process of a liquid changing to a gas at its boiling point is called:
(a) Evaporation
(b) Condensation
(c) Vaporization
(d) Sublimation
Answer: (c) Vaporization

Q: Which law states that pressure and volume are inversely proportional at constant temperature?
(a) Boyle’s Law
(b) Charles’ Law
(c) Avogadro’s Law
(d) Dalton’s Law
Answer: (a) Boyle’s Law

Q: The SI unit of pressure is:
(a) Pascal
(b) Newton
(c) Joule
(d) Watt
Answer: (a) Pascal

Q: Which of the following has the highest density at room temperature?
(a) Gold
(b) Aluminum
(c) Water
(d) Oxygen
Answer: (a) Gold

Q: The temperature at which all molecular motion theoretically stops is:
(a) 0°C
(b) -100°C
(c) -273°C
(d) -373°C
Answer: (c) -273°C

Q: Which of the following is NOT a type of chemical bond?
(a) Ionic
(b) Covalent
(c) Metallic
(d) Nuclear
Answer: (d) Nuclear

Q: The pH scale ranges from:
(a) 0 to 7
(b) 1 to 14
(c) 0 to 14
(d) 1 to 10
Answer: (c) 0 to 14

Q: Which of the following is a characteristic of acids?
(a) Turn litmus blue
(b) Feel slippery
(c) Taste bitter
(d) React with metals to produce H₂ gas
Answer: (d) React with metals to produce H₂ gas

Q: The chemical formula for sulfuric acid is:
(a) HCl
(b) HNO₃
(c) H₂SO₄
(d) H₃PO₄
Answer: (c) H₂SO₄

Q: Which subatomic particle has a negative charge?
(a) Proton
(b) Neutron
(c) Electron
(d) Nucleon
Answer: (c) Electron

Q: The atomic number of an element represents the number of:
(a) Protons
(b) Neutrons
(c) Electrons
(d) Nucleons
Answer: (a) Protons

Q: Isotopes of an element differ in their number of:
(a) Protons
(b) Electrons
(c) Neutrons
(d) Energy levels
Answer: (c) Neutrons

Q: Which group in the periodic table contains the noble gases?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 17
(d) 18
Answer: (d) 18

Q: The element with the symbol ‘K’ is:
(a) Potassium
(b) Phosphorus
(c) Krypton
(d) Kryptonite
Answer: (a) Potassium

Q: Which type of reaction releases heat energy?
(a) Endothermic
(b) Exothermic
(c) Isothermic
(d) Adiabatic
Answer: (b) Exothermic

Q: The law of conservation of mass states that:
(a) Energy cannot be created or destroyed
(b) Mass cannot be created or destroyed
(c) Charge cannot be created or destroyed
(d) Momentum cannot be created or destroyed
Answer: (b) Mass cannot be created or destroyed

Q: Which of the following is NOT a type of radioactive decay?
(a) Alpha
(b) Beta
(c) Gamma
(d) Omega
Answer: (d) Omega

Q: The half-life of a radioactive element is the time required for:
(a) All atoms to decay
(b) Half the atoms to decay
(c) One atom to decay
(d) The activity to double
Answer: (b) Half the atoms to decay

Q: Which scientist proposed the planetary model of the atom?
(a) J.J. Thomson
(b) Ernest Rutherford
(c) Niels Bohr
(d) John Dalton
Answer: (c) Niels Bohr

Q: The quantum number that describes the shape of an orbital is:
(a) Principal
(b) Azimuthal
(c) Magnetic
(d) Spin
Answer: (b) Azimuthal

Q: Which type of electromagnetic radiation has the shortest wavelength?
(a) Radio waves
(b) Microwaves
(c) Visible light
(d) Gamma rays
Answer: (d) Gamma rays

Q: The Pauli Exclusion Principle states that:
(a) No two electrons can have the same energy
(b) No two electrons can occupy the same orbital with the same spin
(c) Electrons fill orbitals from lowest to highest energy
(d) Orbitals of equal energy are half-filled before pairing
Answer: (b) No two electrons can occupy the same orbital with the same spin

Q: Which of the following is NOT a fundamental force of nature?
(a) Gravitational
(b) Electromagnetic
(c) Nuclear
(d) Frictional
Answer: (d) Frictional

Q: The process of nuclear fusion occurs in:
(a) Nuclear reactors
(b) The sun
(c) X-ray machines
(d) Particle accelerators
Answer: (b) The sun

Q: Which of the following is NOT a renewable energy source?
(a) Solar
(b) Wind
(c) Coal
(d) Hydroelectric
Answer: (c) Coal

Q: The greenhouse effect is caused primarily by:
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Hydrogen
Answer: (c) Carbon dioxide

Q: Which gas makes up about 78% of Earth’s atmosphere?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Argon
Answer: (b) Nitrogen

Q: The ozone layer protects Earth from:
(a) Visible light
(b) Infrared radiation
(c) Ultraviolet radiation
(d) Cosmic rays
Answer: (c) Ultraviolet radiation

Q: Acid rain is caused primarily by emissions of:
(a) Carbon monoxide
(b) Sulfur dioxide
(c) Methane
(d) Oxygen
Answer: (b) Sulfur dioxide

Practice of Chemistry Tests (Matric Level) of Pak Navy Operation Branch MCQs

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Chemistry Tests Quiz (Matric Level)

1 / 25

Major part of a living body with respect to mass is made up of:

2 / 25

At room temperature, fluorine & chlorine exist as:

3 / 25

Purity of gold is shown by:

4 / 25

Which of the following is acidic salt:-

5 / 25

Acetic acid is used for:-

6 / 25

The removal of electron from an atom give rise to:

7 / 25

Ammonia is used to manufacture :

8 / 25

Stearic acid is present in:-

9 / 25

Which of these is not a use of H₂SO₄?

10 / 25

The most ductile metal is:

11 / 25

The atomic mass of fluorine is:

12 / 25

Deuterium is used to make:-

13 / 25

Dehydrohalogenationalc of alkyl halides take place in the presence of:

14 / 25

Molecular formula of pentane is:-

15 / 25

Twelve all bronsted bases are

16 / 25

The number of naturally occurring elements are:

17 / 25

The chemical formula of chloroform is:-

18 / 25

Isotopes of an element have different:

19 / 25

The number of groups in periodic table:

20 / 25

The vertical columns in the periodic table are called:-

21 / 25

An atom having six electrons in its outer most shell will attain the electronic configuration of noble gases by:-

22 / 25

The nucleus of an atom is composed of:

23 / 25

Chemical formula of oleic acid:

24 / 25

The number of naturally occurring elements are:

25 / 25

Boilig point of sodium is:

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Practice of Chemistry Tests (Intermediate Level) of Pak Navy Operation Branch MCQs

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Chemistry Tests Quiz (Inter Level)

1 / 25

For the preparation of CH3CHO from calcium acetate we need 1 mole of Ca(CH3COO)2 and:-

2 / 25

Presence of which element controls fire & combustion processes?

3 / 25

Copper sulphate has  water of crystallization

4 / 25

The hybridization of C-atom in carbonyl group is;-

5 / 25

Which is more reactive where O-H bond break:-

6 / 25

H-bonding is strongest among the molecule of:-

7 / 25

Which of the following is the lightest and floats on water:

8 / 25

Sodium- potassium alloy is used in nuclear reactor as a:

9 / 25

Which of the following is an example of associated lipids:-

10 / 25

The sulpher dioxide is used to manufacture :

11 / 25

Which is the configuration of Cr:-

12 / 25

All fats are:-

13 / 25

The atomicity of one molecule of haemoglobin is:-

14 / 25

Which method is used for the separation of dissolved components from the solution;-

15 / 25

When electronegative element combine with electropositive element the type of bonding is

16 / 25

The molecular formula of trisaccharide will be:-

17 / 25

Tincal is a mineral of:-

18 / 25

Which pair of molecules have Debye forces in them:-

19 / 25

Which particles contains 20 n, 19 p, 18 e:-

20 / 25

The number 8.47 is rounded to:-

21 / 25

Which is not correct about  the comparison of AAS and ICP-AES:-

22 / 25

Which factor does not affect the SN1 rate:-

23 / 25

Mass of sodium in 53 g of Na2 CO3 is:-

24 / 25

The carbon carbon bond distance in benzene ring is:-

25 / 25

The weakest carboxylic acid:-

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Practice of Chemistry Tests (Graduation Level) of Pak Navy Operation Branch MCQs

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Chemistry Tests Quiz (Graduation Level)

1 / 25

What is the voltage difference between sytosolic and matrix side of inner mitochondrial membrane during electron transport:-

2 / 25

Group IIIA of the periodic table consist of the elements:-

3 / 25

The test used to distinguish between glucose and fructose is:-

4 / 25

Which metal has more catenation tendency:-

5 / 25

The process of adsorption of hydrogen on palladium is known as:-

6 / 25

Which is true about pyruvate dehydrogenase enzyme:-

7 / 25

Which of the following alkaline earth metal occurs on radioactive form in nature:-

8 / 25

Which are adapter molecules that translate genetic code in amino acid sequence:-

9 / 25

Which is not a habitat of bacteria:-

10 / 25

CaOCl2 is the formula of:-

11 / 25

Hypo is used in photography to:-

12 / 25

Peptide formation involves removal of one molecule of:-

13 / 25

AlCl3 is:-

14 / 25

Soapy detergents and soapless detergents  behave differently in hard water because they have:-

15 / 25

Photochemical smog is formed around mid day in ___- months:-

16 / 25

The causes of environmental pollution are:-

17 / 25

Which steps are involved in the metallurgy of aluminium:-

18 / 25

The tendency of offspring to resemble with their parents is called:-

19 / 25

Drying agent which react with CO2 and remove water vapours;-

 

20 / 25

Which member of the halogen family does not show positive oxidation state:-

21 / 25

Delta-9 indicates a double bond between carbon atoms of the fatty acid:-

22 / 25

Electron affinity of halogen are in the order:-

23 / 25

Ionization potential depends on:-

24 / 25

The oxidation state shown by the phosphorus is:-

25 / 25

An individual with complex extra set of chromosome is_____:-

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