High Scoring Pak Navy GDDOs Tests Questions
The Pak Navy GDDOs Tests MCQs are crucial for candidates interested to join the Pakistan Navy as General Duty Dental Officers. These MCQs cover subjects like Intelligence Tests, BDS Degree Questions, and Biology related Questions, giving candidates a clear understanding of the test format.
To succeed, focus on practicing the Pak Navy GDDOs Tests MCQs to familiarize yourself with question types and improve your time management. Joining online preparation classes can help you cover essential topics and receive expert guidance, ensuring effective study.
With consistent practice and focused preparation using Pak Navy GDDOs Tests MCQs, you can boost your chances of success and secure a spot in the Pakistan Navy. Start your preparation early and be ready for the challenge!, Here you can find free questions related to Intelligence Tests, Biology Tests from matric to Master level and other particular to BDS. All given questions are also very important for Pak Army GDDOs initial tests.
Paper Pattern of GDDOs Tests in Pak Navy
If you want to apply in Pak Navy GDDOs tests through Shot Service Commission then following test pattern is being followed in the initial tests,
- Intelligence Tests (100 Questions which includes Verbal and Non Verbal Intelligence Tests Questions) time for 100 Questions is 40 Min and if questions are less than 100 then time is given accordingly. Passing marks are 50%.
- Academic Test (It includes 64 or 50 Questions, it has no fix policy, time mostly remains 30 min or less.) Passing Marks are also 50%.
Note: Always try to score high in both tests, those who score less marks they have less chances for short listing. Do more practice and prepare timely. These vacancies normally come after the month of May of every year.
Pak Navy GDDOs Tests MCQs with Answers
Q: Hand cutting instruments are composed of:
(a) Handle and neck
(b) Handle and blade only
(c) Handle, shank and blade
(d) Handle, neck and shank
(e) Handle, neck, shank, and blade
Answer: (c) Handle, shank and blade
Q: Use of water spray during cutting procedures have the following advantages:
(a) Dehydration of oral tissues
(b) Tooth restorative material and other debris are carried away
(c) Pulp is protected from heat
(d) Clean view of cavity can be achieved
(e) Bacterial contamination controlled
Answer: (c) Pulp is protected from heat
Q: G.V. Black concluded that the following areas on tooth surface are relatively non-self-cleanable:
(a) Pits and fissures
(b) Tips and cusps
(c) Crests of marginal/crushing ridges
(d) All inclined planes of cusps and ridges
(e) Fossae
Answer: (a) Pits and fissures
Q: Senile carious lesions are most commonly found exclusively on the following areas of the teeth:
(a) Pits and fissures
(b) Occlusal, incisal, facial and lingual embrasures
(c) Inclined planes of cusps
(d) Root surfaces of teeth
(e) Interdental surfaces
Answer: (d) Root surfaces of teeth
Q: The main advantage in developing high copper amalgam alloy is:
(a) Elimination of gamma 1 phase
(b) Increase the strength of amalgam
(c) Decrease the flow value of amalgam
(d) Elimination of gamma phase 2
(e) Reduce the conductivity of amalgam
Answer: (d) Elimination of gamma phase 2
Q: In a cavity preparation, cavo-surface margin will be the junction between:
(a) Cavity wall/floor and adjacent tooth surface
(b) Cavity wall and floor
(c) Floor of occlusal box and proximal box
(d) Proximal wall of one tooth with another
(e) Axial wall and occlusal floor
Answer: (a) Cavity wall/floor and adjacent tooth surface
Q: The optimum depth of a self-threading pin for an amalgam restoration is:
(a) 0.5 mm
(b) 1 mm
(c) 2 mm
(d) 4 mm
(e) 5 mm
Answer: (c) 2 mm
Q: Diamonds are superior to burs for cutting:
(a) Cementum
(b) Dentine
(c) Enamel
(d) Soft tissues
(e) Caries
Answer: (c) Enamel
Q: Class III amalgam restorations are usually prepared on:
(a) Distal surfaces of anterior teeth
(b) Mesial surfaces of canine
(c) Distal surfaces of canine
(d) Distal surfaces of incisors and mesial surfaces of canine
(e) Mesial and distal surfaces of all the teeth
Answer: (c) Distal surfaces of canine
Q: The final finishing of silicate/glass ionomer restoration is done after:
(a) 7ยฝ minutes
(b) 24 hours
(c) 30 minutes
(d) 1 hour
(e) 1 minute
Answer: (b) 24 hours
Q: Pits and fissure sealants are usually derived from:
(a) BIS-GMA resin
(b) Polyurethanes
(c) Zinc phosphate
(d) Both A and B
(e) Ataconic acid
Answer: (d) Both A and B
Q: Instruments used for handling resins are made of:
(a) Stainless steel
(b) Carbon steel
(c) Teflon coated metal
(d) Platinum
(e) Gold
Answer: (c) Teflon coated metal
Q: Tooth surfaces involved in class II design 6 are:
(a) Occlusal, proximal, part of facial and lingual surfaces
(b) Occlusal, facial and lingual surfaces
(c) Proximal and facial/lingual surfaces
(d) Proximal, axial angle and facial cervical
(e) Two or more surfaces of endodontically treated tooth
Answer: (a) Occlusal, proximal, part of facial and lingual surfaces
Q: In class V design 3 cavity preparation, extension looks like:
(a) Y
(b) Snake eye
(c) Moustache
(d) Dove-tail
(e) Kidney shape
Answer: (c) Moustache
Q: Toilet of cavity is:
(a) Removal of debris by washing with H2O
(b) Removal of debris by cold air spray
(c) Removal of debris by hot air spray
(d) Washing the cavity with soap solution
(e) Washing the cavity with medicament
Answer: (a) Removal of debris by washing with H2O
Q: Most common fracture occurring in amalgam restoration is seen at:
(a) Cavosurface margin
(b) The contact area
(c) The isthmus area
(d) Proximal box
(e) Gingival floor
Answer: (c) The isthmus area
Q: The most widely used irrigant displaying optimal cleansing bactericidal properties is:
(a) Formouresol
(b) Sodium Hypochlorite
(c) Saline
(d) Hydrogen peroxide
(e) Glutaraldehyde
Answer: (b) Sodium Hypochlorite
Q: Pain on percussion before endodontic treatment indicates:
(a) Reversible pulpitis
(b) Irreversible pulpitis
(c) Pulp necrosis
(d) Inflammation of periodontal tissues
(e) Exposed dentine
Answer: (d) Inflammation of periodontal tissues
Q: For the extirpation of entire pulp, necrotic debris, and foreign material, one should use:
(a) Raemers
(b) Files
(c) Barbed broaches
(d) Burs
(e) Plain broaches
Answer: (c) Barbed broaches
Q: In RCT, over-preparation of the outer wall of the optical curvature of the canal with inflexible instruments will cause:
(a) Zipping
(b) Perforation
(c) Elbow formation
(d) Ledge formation
(e) Crazing
Answer: (a) Zipping
Q: While examining the RCT done by another dentist, you find a case where the radiograph shows densely packed gutta-percha in coronal third but poorly packed in apical third, the most likely cause is:
(a) Excessive packing of dentine chips in apical one-third
(b) Failure to coat accessing cones with sealers
(c) Failure to obtain proper depth of penetration with compacting instrument
(d) Too much root canal sealer
(e) Use of accessory cones with fine tips
Answer: (c) Failure to obtain proper depth of penetration with compacting instrument
Q: A patient presents with a draining sinus tract in the labial vestibule of a maxillary central incisor. To confirm your diagnosis about the origin of pathosis, you should:
(a) Open the concerned root chamber
(b) Take the bite-wing radiograph
(c) Thread gutta-percha through the root canal and expose the radiograph
(d) Thread the gutta-percha through the tract and expose a radiograph
(e) Measure the periodontal pocket
Answer: (d) Thread the gutta-percha through the tract and expose a radiograph
Q: Which of the following is the appropriate file for removing gutta-percha from root canals?
(a) K file
(b) H file
(c) Flexo file
(d) S file
(e) Rat tail type
Answer: (d) S file
Q: A young 12-year-old boy presents with reddish over-growth of tissue, protruding from carious exposure in lower molar. What may be the possible diagnosis?
(a) Pulp polyp
(b) Pulpal hyperemia
(c) Varicosed polyp
(d) Pulpal granuloma
(e) Gum boil
Answer: (a) Pulp polyp
Q: An 8-year-old boy presents with a class III fracture of tooth #11, which appeared an hour ago, and the apex is not closed. Your treatment should be:
(a) Direct pulp capping with Ca (OH)2
(b) Pulpectomy followed by RCT
(c) Pulpotomy and fill with Ca (OH)2
(d) Smoothening of ledges and restore with composite
(e) Restoration with Glass ionomer cement
Answer: (c) Pulpotomy and fill with Ca (OH)2
Q: What is the space between the lateral incisors and canine called in maxillary deciduous teeth?
(a) Leeway space
(b) Primate space
(c) Freeway space
(d) Bolton space
(e) Interdental space
Answer: (b) Primate space
Q: The recommended concentration of fluoride in communal water supply is:
(a) 0.1 ppm
(b) 0.5 ppm
(c) 1.0 ppm
(d) 2.0 ppm
(e) 5 ppm
Answer: (c) 1.0 ppm
Q: The pulp chamber in milk teeth in proportion to that of permanent teeth is:
(a) Bigger in milk teeth
(b) Smaller in milk teeth
(c) Same in both teeth
(d) Absent in milk teeth
(e) Less vascular in milk teeth
Answer: (a) Bigger in milk teeth
Q: The treatment of choice for a vital, wide-apex tooth which shows pulp exposure is:
(a) Pulpotomy
(b) Pulpectomy
(c) Apexification
(d) Apogenesis
(e) Indirect pulp capping
Answer: (d) Apogenesis
Q: What is the common cause of failure of pulpotomy, that employs Ca(OH)2 in primary molars?
(a) Pulp fibrosis
(b) Pulp calcification
(c) Ankylosis
(d) Internal resorption
(e) Profuse bleeding
Answer: (d) Internal resorption
Q: The walking bleach technique is:
(a) Uses heat treatment
(b) Requires patients to report in 24 hours
(c) Can be done in poorly obturated canals
(d) Uses mixtures of sodium perborate and 3% hydrogen peroxide
(e) Tooth stain remover (Hydrochloric acid)
Answer: (d) Uses mixtures of sodium perborate and 3% hydrogen peroxide
Q: Recapitulation is:
(a) Uses successively larger files to flare the canals
(b) Removing the debris with smaller instruments than the instruments that go to the apex
(c) Circumferential filing with H files
(d) Using various types of files and reamers to enlarge canals
(e) Irrigation of canals with sodium hypochlorite
Answer: (b) Removing the debris with smaller instruments than the instruments that go to the apex
Q: Biologically active sealers which promote peri-apical healing contain:
(a) 2nO Eugenol
(b) Corticosteroids
(c) Ca(OH)2
(d) Silver-points
(e) Zinc phosphate
Answer: (c) Ca(OH)2
Q: In aesthetic dentistry, the colour of the tooth is:
(a) Hue
(b) Chroma
(c) Value
(d) Translucency
(e) Prismatic effects
Answer: (a) Hue
Q: Post crown is indicated in the following case:
(a) Insufficient coronal tooth portion
(b) Loss of enamel but dentine is still left in the crown
(c) Insufficient root portion of tooth
(d) Middle third fracture of root
(e) Erosion of tooth substance
Answer: (a) Insufficient coronal tooth portion
Q: A stabilized root fracture with evidence of hyper-calcification of the pulpal space requires:
(a) No further treatment
(b) Endotherapy with gutta percha
(c) Endotherapy with Ca(OH)2
(d) Surgical removal of apical segment
(e) Post-retained crown
Answer: (a) No further treatment
Q: While making a crown for erosion of tooth substance, the ideal choice of crown is:
(a) Porcelain crown
(b) Metal crown
(c) Porcelain fused metal crown
(d) Acrylic crown
(e) Partial crown
Answer: (c) Porcelain fused metal crown
Q: In patients showing generalized attrition, the normal treatment prior to crown preparation is:
(a) Desensitization of crown of tooth
(b) Periodontal surgery
(c) Sealing
(d) Conventional root canal treatment
(e) Crown built up with composite
Answer: (d) Conventional root canal treatment
Q: Temporary crown/bridges are made to last for a short period of time to:
(a) Protect prepared dentine
(b) To maintain appearance
(c) To prevent tilting/over eruption of prepared tooth
(d) Maintain occlusion
(e) Improve masticatory process
Answer: (c) To prevent tilting/over eruption of prepared tooth
Q: Identify the macromechanical minimal preparation bridge:
(a) Resin-bonded bridge
(b) Adhesive bridge
(c) Maryland bridge
(d) Conventional bridge
(e) Rochette bridge
Answer: (e) Rochette bridge
Q: How many surfaces does the pontic have?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Seven
(e) Two
Answer: (c) Five
Q: Cast, soldered, and porcelain are three types of:
(a) Fixed connectors
(b) Movable connectors
(c) Partial connectors
(d) Both A and B
(e) Temporary connectors
Answer: (a) Fixed connectors
Q: A good treatment plan in planning the bridge is:
(a) To inform the patient about present condition, extent of proposed treatment time, and cost
(b) Not to tell anything to the patient
(c) Patientโs detailed past dental history
(d) Patient must know about drawbacks of treatment
(e) The patient should only be told the minimum possible things, mainly about time and cost
Answer: (a) To inform the patient about present condition, extent of proposed treatment time, and cost
Q: Which crown will have the maximum retention?
(a) Full cast crown
(b) 3/4 crown and no grooves
(c) 3/5 crown and groove
(d) 7/8 crown and groove
(e) Post-retained crown
Answer: (a) Full cast crown
Q: Tooth buds are generally initiated after birth or:
(a) Entire permanent dentition
(b) All permanent and some primary teeth
(c) First and second premolars only and second and third molars only
(d) It is very variable
(e) Lower central incisors only
Answer: (c) First and second premolars only and second and third molars only
Q: Dynamic creep is the ______?
(a) Continuing alloying between silver-tin alloy and mercury during the life of restoration
(b) Deformation of set amalgam during function
(c) Process whereby alloy is wetted by mercury
(d) Spread of amalgam during packing
Answer: (b) Deformation of set amalgam during function
Q: The dental amalgam is most resistant to ________________?
(a) Compressive stress
(b) Impact stress
(c) Shear stress
(d) Tensile stress
Answer: (a) Compressive stress
Q: According to ADA specification No or number 1, the minimum compressive strength for silver amalgam filling after one hour should be ________________?
(a) 80 Mpa
(b) 140 Mpa
(c) 260 Mpa
(d) 510 Mpa
Answer: (b) 140 Mpa
Q: Admixed high copper alloy powder contains _______________?
(a) 9-20% copper
(b) 13-20% copper
(c) 9-30% copper
(d) 13-30% copper
Answer: (d) 13-30% copper
Q: Finishing and polishing of Amalgam make the restoration _____________?
(a) Increase in tarnish and corrosion resistance
(b) Increase the marginal strength
(c) Decrease the tarnish and corrosion resistance
(d) Increased compressive strength
Answer: (a) Increase in tarnish and corrosion resistance
Q: Setting time of Amalgam is best controlled by _______________?
(a) Using spherical particles
(b) Lathe cut alloy
(c) Altering Hg-Alloy ratio
(d) Trituration time
Answer: (c) Altering Hg-Alloy ratio
Q: In non-zinc containing dental amalgam alloy, the percentage of zinc present is _______________?
(a) Less than 0.02%
(b) Less than 0.1%
(c) Less than 0.01%
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) Less than 0.02%
Q: High copper dental amalgams are superior to other amalgams because high copper dental amalgams _______________?
(a) Have less marginal breakdown
(b) Are workable at lower Hg-alloy ratio
(c) Have a higher ratio of tensile to compressive strength
(d) Have less resistance to tarnish and corrosion
Answer: (a) Have less marginal breakdown
Q: The largest component of amalgam alloy is _______________?
(a) Silver
(b) Tin
(c) Zinc
(d) Copper
Answer: (a) Silver
Q: During amalgamation, trituration is done to _______________?
(a) Dissolve the alloy in mercury
(b) Coat the alloy particle with mercury
(c) Remove excess mercury from the amalgam
(d) Dissolve Hg in alloy
Answer: (b) Coat the alloy particle with mercury
Q: Amalgam restorations give the best clinical service when the residual mercury content is _______________?
(a) 38-42%
(b) 48-52%
(c) 58-62%
(d) 68-72%
Answer: (b) 48-52%
Q: Percentage of tin in low copper alloy is _______________?
(a) 30-35%
(b) 26-28%
(c) 13-32%
(d) 22-30%
Answer: (b) 26-28%
Q: Cause of expansion in zinc containing amalgam is _______________?
(a) Zinc and water
(b) Water
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Nascent oxygen
Answer: (a) Zinc and water
Q: What is common in amalgam and ceramics?
(a) More compressive strength but less tensile strength
(b) More compressive strength and tensile strength
(c) Less compressive strength but more tensile strength
(d) Less compressive strength and tensile strength
Answer: (a) More compressive strength but less tensile strength
Q: Which of the following constituents of amalgam alloy decreases expansion?
(a) Copper
(b) Zinc
(c) Silver
(d) Tin
Answer: (a) Copper
Q: The higher the Hg alloy ratio in dental amalgam ________________?
(a) Higher the strength
(b) Lower the creep value
(c) More matrix material formed
(d) More gamma 1 phase formed
Answer: (d) More gamma 1 phase formed
Q: Ag-Cu eutectic alloy has a characteristic property that fusion temp of _______________?
(a) The resultant alloy is greater
(b) The resultant alloy is lesser
(c) The resultant alloy varies according to the content of Ag or Cu
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c) The resultant alloy varies according to the content of Ag or Cu
Q: What is recommended for condensation of dental amalgam?
(a) 35 pounds
(b) 3 pounds
(c) 15 lb
(d) 25 lb
Answer: (c) 15 lb
Q: Which is not true about high copper amalgam alloys ________________?
(a) Low tensile and compressive strength
(b) Low Hg: Alloy ratio
(c) High tensile strength
(d) Low creep
Answer: (a) Low tensile and compressive strength
Q: Amalgam means _______________?
(a) A metallic powder composed of silver, tin, copper and zinc
(b) An alloy of two or more metals, one of which is mercury
(c) An alloy of two or more metals that have been dissolved in each other in the molten state
(d) A metallic substance in powder or tablet form that is mixed with mercury
Answer: (b) An alloy of two or more metals, one of which is mercury
Q: In amalgam alloy, which acts as an oxygen scavenger _______________?
(a) Cu
(b) Zn
(c) Pd
(d) Ag
Answer: (b) Zn
Q: By increasing the percentage of which metal, the strength and hardness of amalgam increases _______________?
(a) Ag
(b) Zn
(c) Cu
(d) Hg
Answer: (c) Cu
Q: Which of the following statement is true regarding lathe cut low Copper silver alloy?
(a) Requires least amount of mercury
(b) Achieves high compressive strength at 1 hr.
(c) Has tensile strength both at 15 minutes and 7 days is comparable to high copper, unicompositional alloys
(d) Has lower creep value
Answer: (c) Has tensile strength both at 15 minutes and 7 days is comparable to high copper, unicompositional alloys
Q: Creep value of which of the following is the highest?
(a) Low copper amalgam alloy
(b) Admix alloy
(c) Single composition alloys
(d) Creep value of all the above mentioned alloys is the same
Answer: (a) Low copper amalgam alloy
Q: Amalgam achieves 70% of the strength by _______________?
(a) hours
(b) 4 hours
(c) 8 hours
(d) 16 hours
Answer: (b) 4 hours
Q: Mercury is toxic because it _______________?
(a) Complexes with hemoglobin to form methemoglobin
(b) Inhibits hemoglobin synthesis, producing anemia
(c) Inhibits anaerobic glycolysis
(d) Binds to sulfhydryl groups
Answer: (d) Binds to sulfhydryl groups
Q: What fraction of inhaled mercury vapors is retained in the body?
(a) 45-55%
(b) 55-65%
(c) 65-85%
(d) More than 85%
Answer: (c) 65-85%
Q: The effect of trituration on strength in an amalgam restoration depends on _______________?
(a) Amalgam alloy
(b) Trituration time
(c) Speed of amalgamator
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
Q: Decrease in creep occurs in _______________?
(a) Under trituration or over trituration of amalgam
(b) Decreases with condensation pressure
(c) Increases with condensation pressure
(d) Cannot be predictable
Answer: (a) Under trituration or over trituration of amalgam
Q: Cavo surface angle for amalgam restoration is butt joint as _______________?
(a) It increases compressive and tensile strengths
(b) Decreased compressive, increased strength
(c) Decreased compressive, decreased tensile strength
(d) Increased compressive, increased tensile strength
Answer: (d) Increased compressive, increased tensile strength
Q: Which of the following are characteristic features of high copper amalgam alloy?
(a) Low compressive strength
(b) High marginal breakdown
(c) Less marginal #
(d) High creep
Answer: (c) Less marginal #
Q: Coefficient of thermal expansion of amalgam is _______________?
(a) 6.6 a (ppm k-1)
(b) 11.4 a (ppm k-1)
(c) 14.0 a (ppm k-1)
(d) 25.0 a (ppm k-1)
Answer: (b) 11.4 a (ppm k-1)
Q: A patient who has had a recent amalgam filling in the upper teeth has a gold filling in the lower teeth, the patient complains of pain. The reason for this can be mainly _______________?
(a) Improper amalgam filling
(b) Pulp exposure
(c) Galvanism
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c) Galvanism
Q: Outstanding clinical performance of dental amalgam restoration is related to its ______________?
(a) Compressive strength
(b) Tensile strength
(c) Corrosion
(d) Creep
Answer: (a) Compressive strength
Q: Absorption of mercury in the human body occurs least from _______________?
(a) Lungs
(b) Gastro-intestinal tract
(c) Skin
(d) Kidneys
Answer: (b) Gastro-intestinal tract
Q: High copper amalgam can be produced _______________?
(a) From smooth atomized particles
(b) From irregular and spherical particles
(c) From lathe cut particles
(d) From traditional alloy particles
Answer: (a) From smooth atomized particles
Q: Which one of the following is not an objective of trituration?
(a) Remove oxides from powder particle surface
(b) Keep the amount of gamma-1 or gamma-2 matrix crystals to maximum
(c) Pulverize pellets into particles to aid in attack by mercury
(d) Achieve a workable mass of amalgam in minimum time
Answer: (b) Keep the amount of gamma-1 or gamma-2 matrix crystals to maximum
Q: Gallium and indium added to Amalgam replace _______________?
(a) Silver
(b) Tin
(c) Mercury
(d) Zinc
Answer: (b) Tin
Q: Which is true regarding lathe cut silver alloy _______________?
(a) Requires least amount of mercury
(b) Achieves lowest compressive strength at 1 hr.
(c) Has tensile strength both at 15 min & 7 days comparable to high copper unicompositional alloy
(d) Has low creep
Answer: (b) Achieves lowest compressive strength at 1 hr.
Q: Adequate mixing of mercury is indicated by _______________?
(a) Dry mix
(b) Shiny mix
(c) Short mixing time
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b) Shiny mix
Q: For dental amalgam, the elastic modulus and tensile strength is _______________?
(a) 40 Gpa and 60 โ 100 Mpa
(b) 21 Gpa and 27 โ 55 Mpa
(c) 350 Gpa and 10 โ 120 Mpa
(d) 360 Gpa and 125 โ 130 Mpa
Answer: (b) 21 Gpa and 27 โ 55 Mpa
Q: Which of the following does not occur in High Copper Amalgam?
(a) Electrochemical corrosion
(b) Chemical corrosion
(c) Penetrating corrosion
(d) Corrosion does not occur at all
Answer: (d) Corrosion does not occur at all
Q: High strength amalgam is achieved by _______________?
(a) Maximum matrix and minimum alloy phase
(b) Minimum matrix and maximum alloy phase
(c) Maximum matrix phase
(d) Minimum alloy phase
Answer: (b) Minimum matrix and maximum alloy phase
Q: Once triturated, the Dental amalgam should be condensed within _______________?
(a) 5 minutes
(b) 6 minutes
(c) 3 minutes
(d) 15 minutes
Answer: (c) 3 minutes
Q: The solid solution of silver and mercury is called _______________?
(a) y1
(b) y2
(c) B1
(d) y
Answer: (a) y1
Q: The advantage of the minimum mercury technique or Eames technique is all Except _______________?
(a) High strength
(b) Sets quickly
(c) Needs no squeezing of excess mercury
(d) Greater plasticity and adapts well to cavity walls
Answer: (d) Greater plasticity and adapts well to cavity walls
Q: Mercury-rich condition in a slow setting amalgam alloy system in a restoration in _______________?
(a) Accelerated corrosion
(b) Fracture of the restoration
(c) Marginal damage
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
Q: Over-trituration of silver alloy and mercury _______________?
(a) Reduces contraction
(b) Increases the strength of lathe cut alloy but reduces the strength of spherical alloy amalgam
(c) Decreases creep
(d) Gives a dull and crumbly amalgam
Answer: (d) Gives a dull and crumbly amalgam
Q: A technique of combining reversible and irreversible hydrocolloid that could bond to irreversible hydrocolloid is known as ________________?
(a) Injecting technique
(b) Laminate technique
(c) Immersion technique
(d) Tempering technique
Answer: (b) Laminate technique
Q: Which of the following impression materials is easy to pour and difficult to remove the stone cast from the impression?
(a) Addition polysilicone
(b) Condensation polysilicone
(c) Polyether
(d) Polysulfide
Answer: (a) Addition polysilicone
Q: Rough and irregular surface produced on the impression is because of ______________?
(a) Improper application of pressure during impression making
(b) Air incorporated during mixing
(c) Too rapid polymerization
(d) Presence of moisture in impression area
Answer: (b) Air incorporated during mixing
Q: The impression material with the lowest viscosity is _______________?
(a) Plaster of paris
(b) Agar โ agar
(c) Zinc oxide eugenol
(d) Elastomers
Answer: (d) Elastomers
Q: The ranking of tear strength from the lowest to highest of all impression materials generally is as follows _______________?
(a) Hydrocolloids, silicones, polyether, polysulfide
(b) Silicones, hydrocolloids, polyether, polysulfide
(c) Polysulfide, hydrocolloids, silicones, polyether
(d) Hydrocolloids, polyether, silicones, polysulfide
Answer: (a) Hydrocolloids, silicones, polyether, polysulfide
Q: Most mucostatic among the following _______________?
(a) Impression compound
(b) Alginate
(c) ZOE paste
(d) Elastomer
Answer: (c) ZOE paste
Q: Which of the following impression material requires a hardener?
(a) Agar
(b) Alginate
(c) Elastomers
(d) Impression compound
Answer: (b) Alginate
Q: Byproduct of condensation reaction between silicone base and alkyl silicate in presence of tin octate _______________?
(a) Ethyl alcohol
(b) Glycol
(c) Acetate
(d) Propanolol
Answer: (a) Ethyl alcohol
Q: Which of the following component acts as an accelerator in ZOE impression paste?
(a) Zinc Sulphate & Zinc chloride
(b) Zinc chloride & Eugenol
(c) Zinc Sulphate & Eugenol
(d) Glycerin
Answer: (a) Zinc Sulphate & Zinc chloride
Q: Dimensional stability of elastomeric impression material can be given in descending order as _______________?
(a) Polysulphide > polyether > Condensation silicone > Addition silicone
(b) Polyether > Condensation silicone > Polysulphide > Addition silicone
(c) Addition silicone > polyether > Polysulphide > Condensation silicone
(d) Addition silicone > Condensation silicone > Polysulphide > polyether
Answer: (c) Addition silicone > polyether > Polysulphide > Condensation silicone
Q: A laminate impression technique utilizes _______________?
(a) Syringe agar and chilled tray alginate
(b) Syringe agar and tray agar
(c) Syringe agar and impression compound
(d) Chilled alginate and impression compound
Answer: (a) Syringe agar and chilled tray alginate
Q: Most flexible impression material _______________?
(a) Impression compound
(b) Impression paste
(c) Addition silicone
(d) Alginate
Answer: (d) Alginate
Q: Which of the following is correct arrangement of impression material regarding linear contraction in ascending order?
(a) Addition silicone < polyether < polysulfide < condensation silicone
(b) Addition silicone < polysulfide < Polyether < condensation silicone
(c) Condensation silicone < polyether < polysulfide < Addition silicone
(d) Condensation silicone < polysulfide < polyether < Addition silicone
Answer: (a) Addition silicone < polyether < polysulfide < condensation silicone
Q: Which of the following best describes the working time of impression material?
(a) After the start of appearing elastic properties of impression material
(b) Just after the start of appearing elastic properties of impression material
(c) The time for start of mixing till just before the start of appearing elastic properties of impression material
(d) Loss of luster of impression material
Answer: (c) The time for start of mixing till just before the start of appearing elastic properties of impression material
Q: Which of the following is used as surface hardener in Impression material?
(a) 2% Potassium sulfate
(b) 0.2% Potassium sulfate
(c) 2% sodium sulfate
(d) 4% Potassium sulfate
Answer: (b) 0.2% Potassium sulfate
Q: Which of the following is correct regarding chemical setting of condensation silicone _______________?
(a) Polymerization occurs with repeated elimination of small molecules
(b) Polymerization occurs with elimination of single byproduct
(c) By condensation of repeated molecules of monomers
(d) Condensation does not occur at all
Answer: (b) Polymerization occurs with elimination of single byproduct
Q: Dimensional stability of hydrocolloid impressions may be achieved by _______________?
(a) Using less water powder ratio
(b) Storing the impression under water
(c) Prolonged manipulation
(d) Using humidor
Answer: (b) Storing the impression under water
Q: To make the vinyl Polysiloxane hydrophilic the following is added _______________?
(a) Mineral oil
(b) Surfactant
(c) Water
(d) Plasticizer
Answer: (b) Surfactant
Q: The role of magnesium chloride in zinc oxide eugenol impression paste _______________?
(a) Retarder
(b) Modifier
(c) Plasticizer
(d) Accelerator
Answer: (d) Accelerator
Q: Alginates are made dust free by adding _______________?
(a) Glycol
(b) Glycerol
(c) Glutamic acid
(d) Alcohol
Answer: (a) Glycol
Q: The process of changing the rubber base product or liquid polymer, to a rubber-like material is generally known as _______________?
(a) Boiling
(b) Condensation
(c) Vulcanization
(d) Chain lengthening
Answer: (c) Vulcanization
Q: Which of the following is not true about elastomeric impression?
(a) Single mix material has higher viscosity
(b) Shear thinning is related to viscosity of non-phase impression material
(c) Improper mixing of material can cause permanent deformation of impression
(d) Putty โ wash technique of impression reduces dimensional change of setting
Answer: (a) Single mix material has higher viscosity
Q: Impression compound is characterized by all of the following except _______________?
(a) Warps at room temperature
(b) Is a thermoset material
(c) Shows increased flow when kneaded with water
(d) Low coefficient of thermal conductivity
Answer: (d) Low coefficient of thermal conductivity
Q: Rapid removal of rubber impression with a single firm motion results in ________________?
(a) Reduced dimensional instability
(b) Improved adhesion of the impression to the tray
(c) Minimal permanent deformation
(d) Reduced contamination by saliva
Answer: (c) Minimal permanent deformation
Q: Which of the following impression materials is rigid?
(a) Zinc oxide-eugenol
(b) Reversible hydrocolloid
(c) Alginate
(d) Polysulphide rubber
Answer: (a) Zinc oxide-eugenol
Q: Elastomers except: Polyether are _______________?
(a) Hydrophilic
(b) Hydrophobic
(c) Water loving impression materials
(d) Potassium alginates
Answer: (b) Hydrophobic
Q: Hardening solutions are used with impression made of _______________?
(a) Hydrocolloid
(b) Impression compound
(c) Elastomer
(d) Zinc oxide eugenol
Answer: (a) Hydrocolloid
Q: Alginate impression material is similar to Agar-agar impression material in the following respect _______________?
(a) Gelation increases in both on increase in temperature
(b) Mixing time is increased to reduce the setting time
(c) Deformation during removal of impression occurs due to distortion of gel fibers
(d) Both can be re-used for fresh impressions
Answer: (a) Gelation increases in both on increase in temperature
Pakistan Navy GDDOs Tests Questions with Answers
Q: Mercury intoxication in dental office mainly results from ______________?
(a) Direct contact with the mercury
(b) Inhalation of mercury vapours
(c) Ingestion of mercury
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b) Inhalation of mercury vapours
Q: The threshold limit value of mercury exposures is _______________?
(a) mg / m3
(b) 0.05 mg / m3
(c) mg / m3
(d) mg / m3
Answer: (b) 0.05 mg / m3
Q: The tarnished layer of silver amalgam consists of _______________?
(a) Sulphides of silver
(b) Oxides of tin
(c) Chlorides of tin
(d) All of the above
Answer: (a) Sulphides of silver
Q: Which phase provides maximum strength in hardened mercury/silver alloy?
(a) Silver / Mercury phase
(b) Silver / Tin phase
(c) Tin / Mercury phase
(d) Zinc / Mercury phase
Answer: (a) Silver / Mercury phase
Q: Copper content in low copper amalgam is _______________?
(a) 6%
(b) 12-30%
(c) 29%
(d) 19%
Answer: (b) 12-30%
Q: Which of the following silver amalgam alloys have the maximum strength _______________?
(a) Lathe cut
(b) Spherical
(c) Admixed
(d) Single composition
Answer: (b) Spherical
Q: What is the most frequently used restorative material?
(a) Silicate
(b) Amalgam
(c) Composite
(d) Gold
Answer: (b) Amalgam
Q: How soon after a moisture contamination does a zinc containing amalgam alloy start expanding _______________?
(a) 24 hours
(b) 1-2 days
(c) 3-5 days
(d) 7 days
Answer: (b) 1-2 days
Q: The percentage of copper in high copper alloy is _______________?
(a) 10-12%
(b) 0-6%
(c) 13-30%
(d) 20-30%
Answer: (c) 13-30%
Q: What is the working time of amalgam?
(a) One to two minutes
(b) Three to four minutes
(c) Five to six minutes
(d) Seven to eight minutes
Answer: (b) Three to four minutes
Q: Advantage of zinc containing amalgam is _______________?
(a) Better handling property
(b) Dimensional stability
(c) Resistance to creep
(d) Toxicity to pulp and dentin
Answer: (a) Better handling property
Q: Discolouration of silver alloy is due to _______________?
(a) Tarnish
(b) Tarnish and corrosion
(c) Wet corrosion
(d) Dry corrosion
Answer: (b) Tarnish and corrosion
Q: Moisture contamination of amalgam can lead to _______________?
(a) Marginal breakdown
(b) Shrinkage
(c) Delayed expansion
(d) Increased stresses
Answer: (c) Delayed expansion
Q: In a high copper amalgam, the phase which is eliminated is _______________?
(a) Gamma 1
(b) Gamma 2
(c) Gamma 1 and 2
(d) No phase is eliminated
Answer: (b) Gamma 2
Q: Well pre-measured capsules of amalgam can release mercury vapour during _______________?
(a) Mulling
(b) Carving
(c) Condensation
(d) Trituration
Answer: (d) Trituration
Q: In spherical alloys as compared to lathe cut ______________?
(a) Less condensing force is required
(b) More condensing force is required
(c) Both require same condensing force
(d) Manipulation is easy
Answer: (a) Less condensing force is required
Q: Chronic mercury toxicity results from _______________?
(a) Ingestion while removing old amalgam
(b) Skin contact
(c) Mercury vapour
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
Q: Increase in the residual mercury in silver amalgam filling can _______________?
(a) Cause fracture of the filling
(b) Tarnish and corrosion
(c) Increase the strength
(d) Decrease condensation pressure
Answer: (b) Tarnish and corrosion
Q: Which of the following statements about high copper silver alloy compared to conventional alloy is not true?
(a) It has increased tensile and compressive strength
(b) It has poor tarnish and corrosion resistance
(c) Its edge strength is greater
(d) Mercury content in the final restoration is less
Answer: (b) It has poor tarnish and corrosion resistance
Q: Compared to conventional amalgams, spherical amalgams _______________?
(a) Require more mercury
(b) Require heavy compaction forces
(c) Have longer setting times
(d) None of the above
Answer: (d) None of the above
Q: Which of the following phases of dental amalgam has minimum strength ______________?
(a) Gamma 1
(b) Gamma 2
(c) Epsilon 1
(d) Gamma 3
Answer: (b) Gamma 2
Q: The ADA specification No 1 for composition of amalgam alloy recommends _______________?
(a) 65% silver, 32% tin and 3% copper
(b) 49% silver, 32% tin and 19% copper
(c) 65% silver, 29% tin and 5-6% copper
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c) 65% silver, 29% tin and 5-6% copper
Q: The highest mercury concentration in amalgam filling is found _______________?
(a) At the margin of the restoration
(b) In the centre of the restoration
(c) In the deepest part of the restoration
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) At the margin of the restoration
Q: The term trituration means ______________?
(a) Lysing amalgam alloy
(b) Mixing of amalgam alloy and mercury
(c) Removal of excess mercury
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b) Mixing of amalgam alloy and mercury
Q: White gold alloy predominantly is _______________?
(a) Gold added with palladium
(b) Gold added with calcium
(c) Gold with much of chromium
(d) Gold with silver
Answer: (a) Gold added with palladium
Q: In type II gold alloys _______ Karat gold is used?
(a) 24 K
(b) 22 K
(c) 18 K
(d) 10 K
Answer: (c) 18 K
Q: The material used in its pure form in dentistry is _______________?
(a) Composite
(b) Silver
(c) Gold
(d) Amalgam
Answer: (c) Gold
Q: Cohesion of gold foil is an example of _______________?
(a) Atomic attraction and welding
(b) Annealing
(c) Wedging
(d) Adaptation
Answer: (a) Atomic attraction and welding
Q: Average particle size of powdered gold is _______________?
(a) 10 um
(b) 15 um
(c) 30 um
(d) 0.1 um
Answer: (b) 15 um
Q: The pure form of gold used in dentistry is known as _______________?
(a) Cohesive gold
(b) Non-cohesive gold
(c) Class I casting gold
(d) Class IV casting gold
Answer: (a) Cohesive gold
Q: Electralloy is an alloy of _______________?
(a) Gold and Platinum
(b) Cobalt and Chromium
(c) Gold and Calcium
(d) Tin and chromium
Answer: (a) Gold and Platinum
Q: The carat for Au foil used for restorations is _______________?
(a) 18
(b) 20
(c) 22
(d) 24
Answer: (c) 22
Q: Direct filling gold formed by electrolytic precipitation is called by all the terms EXCEPT _______________?
(a) Crystalline
(b) Granular gold
(c) Mat gold
(d) Sponge gold
Answer: (a) Crystalline
Q: When Gold fused with porcelain is fired at very high temperature, greenish discoloration of the cervical margin is due to ________________?
(a) High firing temperature
(b) Disintegration of opaque layer
(c) Presence of copper
(d) Formation of excess oxides
Answer: (c) Presence of copper
Q: Which of the following is true about direct filling gold ______________?
(a) Properly condensed mat gold has no voids
(b) Whatever may be the type voids are inherent
(c) Voids can be avoided with manual condensation
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) Properly condensed mat gold has no voids
Q: The malleting force is directed ______________?
(a) Perpendicular to the walls
(b) Parallel to long axis of crown
(c) 45ยฐ to the wall
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b) Parallel to long axis of crown
Q: Pitting of direct filling gold restoration usually results from _______________?
(a) Using contaminated gold foil
(b) Poor finished preparation
(c) Improper stepping of condenser point
(d) Using small condenser point
Answer: (c) Improper stepping of condenser point
Q: The cohesive gold used as bulk filler is ______________?
(a) Electra alloy
(b) Mat gold
(c) Spherical gold
(d) Gold foil
Answer: (b) Mat gold
Q: The 4th state of matter is _______________?
(a) Solid
(b) Liquid
(c) Gas
(d) Colloid
Answer: (d) Colloid
Q: All of the following statements about an alginate impression are EXCEPT _______________?
(a) It should be rapidly displaced from the mouth
(b) It may exhibit fluid exudates on the surface as a result of imbibition of water
(c) It will take up water and expand if kept wet
(d) It will shrink as a result of syneresis
Answer: (a) It should be rapidly displaced from the mouth
Q: Type I and Type II zinc oxide impression paste differ with respect to _______________?
(a) Their use
(b) Their hardness after setting
(c) Water content
(d) Eugenol content
Answer: (a) Their use
Q: The term given to the phenomenon of moisture absorption by an alginate impression is _______________?
(a) Imbibition
(b) Syneresis
(c) Hysteresis
(d) Gelation
Answer: (a) Imbibition
Q: The impression with the least dimensional change upon disinfection is _______________?
(a) Addition poly silicone
(b) Agar-agar
(c) Polysulphide
(d) Polyether
Answer: (a) Addition poly silicone
Q: Palladium is added to polyvinyl siloxane to _______________?
(a) Act as a scavenger
(b) Help as surfactant
(c) Act as plasticizer
(d) Act as a catalyst
Answer: (a) Act as a scavenger
Q: Immediate pouring of impressions is most critical in _______________?
(a) Condensation polysilicon
(b) Addition Polysilicon
(c) Polyether
(d) A and B
Answer: (d) A and B
Q: The impression material used to record the prepared areas on abutment teeth is _______________?
(a) High viscosity elastomeric impression material
(b) Medium viscosity elastomeric impression material
(c) Low viscosity elastomeric impression material
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) High viscosity elastomeric impression material
Q: Alginate impression material is _______________?
(a) Non-elastic impression material
(b) Thermoplastic impression material
(c) More mucostatic than ZOE
(d) Less mucostatic than ZOE
Answer: (d) Less mucostatic than ZOE
Q: Syringe material is _______________?
(a) High viscosity elastomer
(b) Medium viscosity elastomer
(c) Medium & low viscosity elastomer
(d) Low viscosity elastomer
Answer: (d) Low viscosity elastomer
Q: The impression for a diagnostic cast of a partial edentulous mouth should be taken in _______________?
(a) Impression wax
(b) Modelling compound
(c) Hydro-colloid
(d) Hydro cal
Answer: (c) Hydro-colloid
Q: Agar impression materials differ from alginate impression materials in that the former sets by _______________?
(a) Mechanical action of saliva
(b) Physical change
(c) Evolution
(d) Chemical change
Answer: (b) Physical change
Q: Which material undergoes hysteresis?
(a) Irreversible hydrocolloid
(b) Reversible hydrocolloid
(c) Impression plaster
(d) Metallic oxide paste
Answer: (b) Reversible hydrocolloid
Q: The setting time of irreversible hydrocolloids can be decreased by _______________?
(a) Raising the temperature of water used for mixing
(b) Using excess water for mixing
(c) Lowering the temperature of water used for mixing
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) Raising the temperature of water used for mixing
Q: Rubber base impressions are poured immediately as they _______________?
(a) Continue to polymerize
(b) Become elastic
(c) Show imbibition and syneresis
(d) Show gelation
Answer: (a) Continue to polymerize
Q: The most mucostatic impression material is _______________?
(a) Thin mix of plaster of paris
(b) Zinc oxide eugenol impression paste
(c) Free flowing wax
(d) Reversible hydrocolloids
Answer: (b) Zinc oxide eugenol impression paste
Q: The best way to remove a hydrocolloid impression from the patientโs mouth is _______________?
(a) Slight rocking of the impression to disengage it from the undercut
(b) Wetting the periphery of the impression with moist cotton to break the peripheral seal
(c) Sudden jerking of the impression to prevent tearing
(d) Supporting the impression along with the tray to prevent disengaging of the tray alone
Answer: (a) Slight rocking of the impression to disengage it from the undercut
Q: Palatal secretions affect the setting of all the impression materials except _______________?
(a) Silicone
(b) Agar-agar
(c) Impression paste
(d) Impression plaster
Answer: (a) Silicone
Q: Lanolin is added in ZOE paste to _______________?
(a) Decrease flow
(b) Increase flow
(c) Accelerate reaction
(d) Decrease irritation due to eugenol
Answer: (d) Decrease irritation due to eugenol
Q: Agar is prepared from _______________?
(a) Bullock heart
(b) Chemicals
(c) Sea weed
(d) Chick cells
Answer: (c) Sea weed
Q: Perforated impression trays are used for _______________?
(a) Alginate
(b) Zinc oxide-eugenol
(c) Agar-agar
(d) Impression compound
Answer: (a) Alginate
Q: During setting of alginate impression materials _______________?
(a) Trisodium phosphate reacts with sodium alginate
(b) Trisodium phosphate reacts with calcium sulphate
(c) Colloidal changes to sol
(d) Material in contact with soft tissues sets last
Answer: (b) Trisodium phosphate reacts with calcium sulphate
Q: K2SO4 in agar-agar is for _______________?
(a) Accelerating the setting stage of gypsum
(b) Increase strength
(c) Give dimensional stability
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c) Give dimensional stability
Q: Wash or corrective impression is done by _______________?
(a) Impression plaster
(b) Impression paste
(c) Alginate
(d) Rubber base impression material
Answer: (d) Rubber base impression material
Q: The plasticizers used in polyether impression material is _______________?
(a) Polyether polymer
(b) Colloidal silica
(c) Glycol ether
(d) Di-vinyl poly (dimethyl siloxane)
Answer: (c) Glycol ether
Q: In reversible hydrocolloid, the property by which the transformation from sol to gel and gel to sol is a function of the _______________?
(a) Concentration of filler and plasticizer
(b) Percentage composition by weight of water
(c) Concentration of potassium sulphate
(d) Temperature
Answer: (d) Temperature
Q: Alginates are _______________?
(a) Sol
(b) Gel
(c) Hydrocolloid
(d) Colloid
Answer: (c) Hydrocolloid
Q: Syneresis is associated with _______________?
(a) Hydrocolloids
(b) Elastomers
(c) Zinc oxide eugenol
(d) Plaster of paris
Answer: (a) Hydrocolloids
Q: The advantage of ZOE impression paste _______________?
(a) Has dimensional stability
(b) Does not adhere to tissues
(c) Is easy manipulation
(d) Does not require special trays
Answer: (b) Does not adhere to tissues
Q: Rinsing of the impression is important to _______________?
(a) Remove excess impression material
(b) Remove saliva
(c) Hydrate the impression
(d) Accelerate the setting
Answer: (c) Hydrate the impression
Q: Which is the best material for RPD impression _______________?
(a) Impression plaster
(b) Irreversible hydrocolloid
(c) Reversible hydrocolloid
(d) None of the above
Answer: (d) None of the above
Q: Which of the following is not affected by saliva?
(a) Impression plaster
(b) Impression paste
(c) Silicon impression material
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c) Silicon impression material
Q: Retarder in Zinc oxide eugenol is _______________?
(a) CaCl2
(b) Zinc acetate
(c) Alcohol
(d) Glycerine
Answer: (b) Zinc acetate
Q: The cross-linking agent of polysulphide rubber base impression material is _______________?
(a) Aromatic sulfonate esters
(b) Stannous octate
(c) Platinum salt catalyst
(d) Lead dioxide
Answer: (b) Stannous octate
Q: When making a polysulphide impression for a cast crown, custom trays are usually preferred over stock trays for all of the following reasons except _______________?
(a) Custom trays facilitate uniform contraction of impression material
(b) Custom trays require less impression material
(c) Stock trays may be short in the flange area
(d) Impressions made in the custom trays are easier to remove from the mouth
Answer: (a) Custom trays facilitate uniform contraction of impression material
Q: Name the accelerator used in Zinc oxide eugenol paste _______________?
(a) Olive oil
(b) Linseed oil
(c) Zinc acetate
(d) All of these
Answer: (d) All of these
Q: Linear contraction of elastomeric impression with the passage of time is highest in _______________?
(a) Addition silicone
(b) Polysulphide
(c) Polyether
(d) Condensation silicone
Answer: (d) Condensation silicone
Q: Which of the following is true about Agar hydrocolloid impression material?
(a) Liquefies between 71 โ 100ยฐC
(b) Solidifies between 50 โ 70ยฐC
(c) Facilitates fabrication of metal dyes
(d) Cannot register fine surface details
Answer: (a) Liquefies between 71 โ 100ยฐC
Q: Which one of the following increases the strength and reduces the viscosity of agar hydrocolloid impression material _______________?
(a) Borax
(b) Water
(c) Sulfates
(d) Carbonates
Answer: (a) Borax
Q: The water-powder ratio of alginate is _______________?
(a) 100 ml of water to 60 gms of powder
(b) 40 ml of water to 40 gms of powder
(c) 40 ml of water to 15 gms of powder
(d) 15 ml of water to 40 gms of powder
Answer: (b) 40 ml of water to 40 gms of powder
Q: The best impression material to be used for securing impression after crown preparation _______________?
(a) Alginate
(b) Agar
(c) Elastomer
(d) ZNO paste
Answer: (c) Elastomer
Q: Which of the following is correct for the glass transition temperature of Impression compound?
(a) 43.5ยฐC
(b) 39ยฐC
(c) 65ยฐC
(d) 100ยฐC
Answer: (a) 43.5ยฐC
Q: Rough and irregular surface produced on the impression is because of _______________?
(a) Air incorporated during mixing
(b) Improper application of pressure during impression making
(c) Presence of excessive saliva in impression area
(d) Due to improper ratio of polymer and monomer
Answer: (a) Air incorporated during mixing
Q: Minimum flow of Type-I impression compound at mouth temperature is _______________?
(a) 4%
(b) 6%
(c) 8%
(d) 10%
Answer: (b) 6%
Q: Polysulfide material is routinely not recommended because of _______________?
(a) Unpleasant odor and taste
(b) Low accuracy
(c) Least permanent deformation
(d) Highest curing shrinkage
Answer: (a) Unpleasant odor and taste
Q: Hydrocolloid material shows all except _______________?
(a) Hysteresis
(b) Imbibition
(c) Recrystallisation
(d) Syneresis
Answer: (c) Recrystallisation
Q: Impression material that does NOT harden by chemical reaction _______________?
(a) Zinc oxide eugenol
(b) Impression compound
(c) Alginate
(d) Plaster of paris
Answer: (c) Alginate
Q: Putty wash technique _______________?
(a) Light body and putty used at the same time
(b) Putty used first and light body used second
(c) Light body first and putty later
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c) Light body first and putty later
Q: What is the minimum thickness of the elastomeric impression material for an accurate impression _______________?
(a) 2 mm
(b) 2-4 mm
(c) Greater than 3 mm
(d) Maximum in the area of operation
Answer: (b) 2-4 mm
Q: The relative hardness of elastomer is determined using _______________?
(a) Rockwell tester
(b) Barcol indenter
(c) Knoop pyramid
(d) Shore durometer
Answer: (d) Shore durometer
Q: Rough surface of elastomeric impression results from _______________?
(a) Inadequate mixing
(b) Air bubbles
(c) Too rapid polymerization
(d) Incomplete polymerization caused by premature removal from mouth
Answer: (a) Inadequate mixing
Q: The most rigid elastomer is _______________?
(a) Polyether
(b) Polysulphide
(c) Addition silicone
(d) Condensation silicone
Answer: (a) Polyether
Q: The most ideally elastic among the following _______________?
(a) Polyether
(b) Addition silicone
(c) Polysulphide
(d) Condensation silicone
Answer: (b) Addition silicone
Q: Which one of the following impression materials is elastic, sets by a chemical reaction, and is catalyzed by chloroplatinic acid _______________?
(a) Condensation silicone
(b) Polyether
(c) Polysulfide
(d) Poly vinyl siloxane
Answer: (d) Poly vinyl siloxane
Q: Which of the following best describes the working time of elastomeric impression material?
(a) After the start of appearing elastic properties of impression material
(b) Just after the start of appearing elastic properties of impression material
(c) Just before the start of appearing elastic properties of impression material
(d) Loss of luster of impression material
Answer: (c) Just before the start of appearing elastic properties of impression material
Q: Final product in alginate is _______________?
(a) Sodium alginate
(b) Potassium alginate
(c) Trisodium phosphate
(d) Calcium alginate
Answer: (d) Calcium alginate
Q: Dustless alginate is produced by _______________?
(a) Reducing the diatomaceous earth
(b) Adding heavy metal salts
(c) Coating with dihydric alcohol
(d) Altering the matrix
Answer: (a) Reducing the diatomaceous earth
Q: Two in one stage impression materials include _______________?
(a) Zinc Oxide eugenol impression paste
(b) Hydrocolloid impression material
(c) Elastomeric impression material
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
Q: Gelation temperature of agar is between _______________?
(a) 20ยฐC to 25ยฐC
(b) 27ยฐC to 33ยฐC
(c) 37ยฐC to 50ยฐC
(d) 55ยฐC to 60ยฐC
Answer: (b) 27ยฐC to 33ยฐC
Q: Brush heap structure is found in _______________?
(a) Zinc oxide impression material
(b) Agar
(c) Condensation silicone
(d) Polyether
Answer: (b) Agar
Q: Material causing minimum tissue distortion is _______________?
(a) Polysulphide
(b) Silicone
(c) Impression plaster
(d) Zinc oxide eugenol paste
Answer: (b) Silicone
Q: Inelastic impression material is _______________?
(a) Impression compound
(b) Alginate
(c) Agar-agar
(d) Polyether
Answer: (a) Impression compound
Q: One of the most important advantages of truly elastic impression material would be its capacity for _______________?
(a) Close adaptation to soft tissues
(b) Withdrawal without permanent distortion
(c) Reproduction of surface details
(d) Compatibility with gypsum products
Answer: (b) Withdrawal without permanent distortion
Q: Impression compound base _______________?
(a) Low thermal conductivity
(b) Crystalline structure
(c) Formation of cross linkage with heating
(d) High fusion temperature
Answer: (c) Formation of cross linkage with heating
Q: Hypersensitivity reactions like contact dermatitis can be caused by _______________?
(a) Polysulfides
(b) Condensation silicones
(c) Addition silicones
(d) Polyether
Answer: (a) Polysulfides
Q: Trisodium phosphate in alginate acts as _______________?
(a) Retarder
(b) Reactor
(c) Accelerator
(d) Plasticizer
Answer: (a) Retarder
Q: Which of the following impression materials is elastic _______________?
(a) Impression compound
(b) Zinc Oxide eugenol (ZOE) paste
(c) Wax
(d) Polyvinyl siloxane
Answer: (d) Polyvinyl siloxane
Q: The American dental association (ADA) specification number for non-aqueous elastomeric dental impression material is _______________?
(a) 19
(b) 20
(c) 21
(d) 26
Answer: (b) 20
Q: Elastomers are _______________?
(a) Alginate
(b) Agar
(c) Polyethers
(d) Impression compound
Answer: (c) Polyethers
Q: Tear strength for impression material is highest for _______________?
(a) Condensation silicone
(b) Alginate
(c) Polysulfide
(d) Addition silicone
Answer: (d) Addition silicone
Q: Trisodium phosphate added to alginate contributes towards _______________?
(a) Increasing the working time of alginate impression material
(b) Acts as an accelerator
(c) Initiating the setting reaction
(d) Provides gel strength
Answer: (a) Increasing the working time of alginate impression material
Q: Agar syringe material can be used with/as _______________?
(a) Agar
(b) Alginate impression material
(c) Both of the above
(d) Primary impression
Answer: (c) Both of the above
Q: Impression compound has which of the following characteristic property?
(a) Low thermal conductivity
(b) High flow property
(c) Degradation in the presence of moisture
(d) Remain distortion-free up to 72 hrs. pouring can be safely delayed
Answer: (c) Degradation in the presence of moisture
Q: Heavy and light body impression materials are used with _______________?
(a) Mercaptan
(b) Silicone
(c) Reversible hydrocolloid
(d) A and B
Answer: (d) A and B
Q: Which material is the most difficult to remove from the patient’s mouth?
(a) Metallic oxide paste
(b) Silicone impression material
(c) Reversible hydrocolloid
(d) Impression plaster
Answer: (d) Impression plaster
Q: Before pouring an elastic impression, it is washed with slurry of water and stone to _______________?
(a) Increase gel strength
(b) Prevent syneresis
(c) Prevent distortion
(d) Wash off saliva on impression
Answer: (b) Prevent syneresis
Q: The basic constituent of reversible hydrocolloid impression material is _______________?
(a) Agar
(b) Alginic acid
(c) Gelatin
(d) Alginate
Answer: (a) Agar
Q: Sol โ gel transformation is seen in _______________?
(a) Impression plaster
(b) Hydrocolloids
(c) Elastomer
(d) Impression compound
Answer: (b) Hydrocolloids
Q: Setting time of ZOE is best controlled by _______________?
(a) Adding a drop of eugenol
(b) Adding a drop of water
(c) Cooling the glass slab
(d) Altering the ratio of two pastes
Answer: (d) Altering the ratio of two pastes
Q: Impression plaster is _______________?
(a) Less compressive than alginate
(b) More compressive than alginate
(c) As compressive as alginate
(d) More compressive than hydrocolloids
Answer: (b) More compressive than alginate
Q: Vulcanization refers to the setting of _______________?
(a) Reversible hydrocolloid
(b) Mercaptan impression material
(c) Zinc Phosphate cement
(d) Zinc oxide-eugenol
Answer: (b) Mercaptan impression material
Q: Impression techniques are used for recording _______________?
(a) Oral mucosal tissues
(b) Dental hard tissues
(c) Oral mucosal tissues and dental hard tissues
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c) Oral mucosal tissues and dental hard tissues
Q: Syneresis seen in hydrocolloid gel is _______________?
(a) Seen as water loss
(b) Water absorption
(c) Shrinkage
(d) Gelation
Answer: (a) Seen as water loss
Q: Best material for duplicating cast is _______________?
(a) Agar-agar
(b) Alginate
(c) Zinc oxide eugenol
(d) Plaster of paris
Answer: (b) Alginate
Q: The base paste of the condensation polysilicone has a low molecular weight dimethyl siloxane with a terminal-group _______________?
(a) Mercaptan group
(b) Hydroxyl group
(c) Silane group
(d) Vinyl group
Answer: (a) Mercaptan group
Q: Hysteresis in a hydrocolloid gel is _______________?
(a) Moisture absorption
(b) Temperature lag between gelation and liquefaction temperature
(c) Phenomenon of conversion of gel into sol
(d) All of the above
Answer: (b) Temperature lag between gelation and liquefaction temperature
Q: All of the following can be used to slow down the setting of Zinc oxide eugenol impression paste EXCEPT _______________?
(a) Adding a small amount of glycerine
(b) Adding a small amount of water
(c) Altering the amounts of the two pastes used
(d) Cooling mixing slab
Answer: (b) Adding a small amount of water
Q: All of the following statements about Type II silicon impression material are true EXCEPT _______________?
(a) They evolve hydrogen when cast if they are not fully cured
(b) They exhibit a very low setting shrinkage
(c) They have a lower tear resistance than polysulphide rubbers
(d) They set by condensation polymerisation
Answer: (d) They set by condensation polymerisation
Q: The Zinc oxide-eugenol impression pastes harden by _______________?
(a) Chemical reaction
(b) Cold
(c) Heat
(d) Pressure
Answer: (a) Chemical reaction
Q: A material behaves in certain ways above and below the proportional limit on a stress-strain curve, which of the following is correct _______________?
(a) Above the proportional limit a material functions in a plastic manner, while below the proportional limit it behaves elastically
(b) Above the proportional limit a material functions in an elastic manner, while below the proportional limit it behaves plastically
(c) Either A or B
(d) Neither A nor B
Answer: (a) Above the proportional limit a material functions in a plastic manner, while below the proportional limit it behaves elastically
Q: Deformation that is recovered upon removal of an externally applied force or pressure is known as _______________?
(a) Youngโs modulus
(b) Plastic strain
(c) Elastic strain
(d) Flexural strain
Answer: (c) Elastic strain
Q: Coefficient of thermal expansion of tooth enamel is closest to _______________?
(a) Silicate cement
(b) Composite
(c) GIC
(d) Polycarboxylate
Answer: (b) Composite
Q: The forces that hold atoms together are called _______________?
(a) Primary forces
(b) Secondary forces
(c) Cohesive forces
(d) Ionic forces
Answer: (c) Cohesive forces
Q: A material which partially transmits light & partially scatters it _______________?
(a) Reflector
(b) Translucent
(c) Transparent
(d) Opaque
Answer: (b) Translucent
Q: Angles between Adhesive and Adherent is Zero degree, it indicates _______________?
(a) Complete wetting of surfaces
(b) Rough surfaces between Adhesive & Adherent
(c) Adherent and Adhesive molecules are tangent to each other
(d) Irregularities present between Adherent surfaces
Answer: (a) Complete wetting of surfaces
Q: Brazilian test is used to determine the ultimate tensile strength of _______________?
(a) Ductile materials
(b) Flexible materials
(c) Brittle materials
(d) Malleable materials
Answer: (c) Brittle materials
Q: For adhesion to be present between solid and liquid _______________?
(a) Liquid should wet solid surface
(b) Mechanical interlocking should be present
(c) Should have high contact angle
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) Liquid should wet solid surface
Q: When two metals are completely miscible in liquid state and they remain completely mixed on solidification, the alloy formed is called _______________?
(a) Solid solution
(b) Eutectic mixture
(c) Peritectic mixture
(d) Intermetallic compounds
Answer: (a) Solid solution
Q: A crystal in metal substructure is _______________?
(a) Grain
(b) Nucleus
(c) Stroma
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) Grain
Q: Munsell system is used to _______________?
(a) Define and measure colour qualitatively
(b) Define and measure physical properties of gold alloys
(c) Evaluate brittleness of different alloys
(d) Measures different colours quantitatively
Answer: (a) Define and measure colour qualitatively
Q: Space lattice refers to _______________?
(a) Inter atomic movement
(b) Inter atomic imbalance
(c) Arrangement of atoms
(d) Arrangement of molecules
Answer: (c) Arrangement of atoms
Q: The strain that occurs when a material is stressed to its proportional limit is _______________?
(a) Resilience
(b) Maximum flexibility
(c) Toughness
(d) Elastic limit
Answer: (d) Elastic limit
Q: Liquids which become more rigid as the rate of deformation increases are termed as _______________?
(a) Thixotropic
(b) Pseudoplastic
(c) Dilatant
(d) Newton
Answer: (c) Dilatant
Q: A restorative material which has a high proportional limit, compared with one with a lower proportional limit, would have _______________?
(a) Greater ductility
(b) Greater toughness
(c) A higher modulus of elasticity
(d) More resistance to permanent deformation
Answer: (c) A higher modulus of elasticity
Q: Which of the following has the highest modulus of elasticity?
(a) Dentin
(b) Enamel
(c) Amalgam
(d) Composite Resin
Answer: (b) Enamel
Q: The wetting of an adherent surface by an adhesive is related to _______________?
(a) Surface energy of the adherent
(b) Surface texture of the adherent
(c) Surface tension of the adherent
(d) Nature of the adherent that is crystalline or amorphous
Answer: (a) Surface energy of the adherent
Q: Coefficient of thermal expansion of which of the following is most similar to that of tooth?
(a) Gold inlay
(b) Acrylic resin
(c) Silicate cement
(d) Gold foil
Answer: (a) Gold inlay
Q: The stiffness of a dental gold alloy is determined by its _______________?
(a) Proportional limit
(b) Modulus of elasticity
(c) Ultimate tensile strength
(d) Flow
Answer: (b) Modulus of elasticity
Q: Ductility of a material is a measure of its _______________?
(a) Grain elongation
(b) Annealing
(c) Cold working
(d) Work hardening
Answer: (a) Grain elongation
Q: Sublimation is the conversion of a _______________?
(a) Solid directly to gas
(b) Gas to liquid and then to solid
(c) Gas directly to liquid
(d) Solid to liquid and then to gas
Answer: (a) Solid directly to gas
Q: Modulus of elasticity means _______________?
(a) Rigidity or stiffness of the material
(b) Ability to be stretched with permanent deformation
(c) Ductility of a material
(d) Malleability of the metal
Answer: (a) Rigidity or stiffness of the material
Q: When solid gets wet completely contact angle is _______________?
(a) 90ยฐ
(b) 0ยฐ
(c) 0 โ 90ยฐ
(d) >90ยฐ
Answer: (b) 0ยฐ
Q: Brinnel hardness number of a dental gold alloy is directly proportional to its _______________?
(a) Tensile strength
(b) Elongation
(c) Modulus of elasticity
(d) Modulus of resilience
Answer: (a) Tensile strength
Q: Hardness number which does not depend on the ductility of metal _______________?
(a) KNH
(b) VHN
(c) RHN
(d) BHN
Answer: (d) BHN
Q: The greatest stress which may be produced in a material such that stress is directly proportional to the strain is known as _______________?
(a) The elastic limit
(b) The proportional limit
(c) The yield strength
(d) Modulus of elasticity
Answer: (b) The proportional limit
Q: The modulus of elasticity is defined as _______________?
(a) The stress at the proportional limit
(b) The strain at the proportional limit
(c) The stress/strain ratio within the proportional limit
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c) The stress/strain ratio within the proportional limit
Q: Strain is defined as _______________?
(a) An applied load or force
(b) A deformation resulting from an applied load
(c) An external force opposing an applied load
(d) An internal force opposing an applied load
Answer: (b) A deformation resulting from an applied load
Q: A good adhesive should possess all of the following EXCEPT _______________?
(a) High adherend wetting
(b) High contact angle
(c) Low contact angle
(d) High flow
Answer: (b) High contact angle
Q: In measuring Vickers hardness number, which of the following is used _______________?
(a) Spherical indenter
(b) Steel ball indentation
(c) Rhomboid shaped indenter
(d) 136-degree diamond pyramid
Answer: (d) 136-degree diamond pyramid
Q: The simplest alloy is a _______________?
(a) Solid solution
(b) Eutectic alloy
(c) Peritectic alloy
(d) Ternary alloy
Answer: (a) Solid solution
Q: Materials which have high compressive strength and low tensile strength are classified with the property of _______________?
(a) Ductility
(b) Brittleness
(c) Malleability
(d) Resilience
Answer: (b) Brittleness
Q: Maxwell โ Voigt Model is to determine _______________?
(a) Elastic Behaviour
(b) Plastic Behaviour
(c) Viscoelastic Behaviour
(d) All of the above
Answer: (c) Viscoelastic Behaviour
Q: KHN value of Amalgam is _______________?
(a) 90
(b) 343
(c) 67
(d) 450
Answer: (c) 67
Q: The melting point of silver is _______________?
(a) 1063ยฐ centigrade
(b) 960ยฐ Centigrade
(c) 850ยฐ Centigrade
(d) 1123ยฐ Centigrade
Answer: (a) 1063ยฐ centigrade
Q: Non-metal which conducts electricity _______________?
(a) Graphite
(b) Carbon
(c) Acrylic
(d) Porcelain
Answer: (a) Graphite
Q: Etching of dentin does not include _______________?
(a) Removal of smear layer
(b) Exposure of collagen fibers
(c) Opening of dentinal tubules
(d) Increases surface energy
Answer: (d) Increases surface energy
Q: The Knoop Hardness Number of Microfilled composite restorative material ranges from _______________?
(a) 50 โ 60 KHN
(b) 25 โ 35 KHN
(c) 15 โ 20 KHN
(d) 40 โ 48 KHN
Answer: (b) 25 โ 35 KHN
Q: The elastic or plastic deformation to fracture of a material is its _______________?
(a) Toughness
(b) Brittleness
(c) Youngโs modulus
(d) Proportional limit
Answer: (a) Toughness
Q: KHN of enamel is close to _______________?
(a) Pure gold
(b) Amalgam
(c) Porcelain
(d) Composite
Answer: (c) Porcelain
Q: Which one of the following is the result of applying a load to a wire below its modulus of elasticity on a load deflection diagram?
(a) Fracture of the wire
(b) Permanent deformation
(c) Spring back
(d) Increase in stiffness
Answer: (c) Spring back
Q: A fluid having constant viscosity that does not depend upon the strain rate is said to be _______________?
(a) Viscoelastic
(b) Pseudoplastic
(c) Plastic
(d) Newtonian
Answer: (d) Newtonian
Q: Which of the following hardness tests is a micro hardness test?
(a) Brinnel
(b) Knoop
(c) Shore-A
(d) Rockwell
Answer: (b) Knoop
Q: Which of the following properties of dental materials is time dependent?
(a) Creep
(b) Resilience
(c) Elastic limit
(d) Ultimate strength
Answer: (a) Creep
Q: Flow of a material refers to _______________?
(a) Continued change of the material under a given load
(b) The consistency of material when mixing
(c) The homogeneity of gypsum products
(d) Dimensional change of the material during setting
Answer: (a) Continued change of the material under a given load
Q: The ability of the base to resist occlusal forces and to support the restoration is affected by _______________?
(a) Compressive strength
(b) Tensile strength
(c) Youngโs modulus
(d) Modulus of elasticity
Answer: (a) Compressive strength
Q: The ability of an alloy to withstand mechanical stresses without permanent deformation is reflected by its _______________?
(a) Resilience
(b) Elastic limit / Elastic strain
(c) Hardness
(d) Fatigue resistance
Answer: (b) Elastic limit / Elastic strain
Q: Which of the following physical properties can be used to estimate indirectly the proportional limit of gold alloys?
(a) Vickersโs hardness number
(b) Knoop hardness number
(c) Brinell hardness number
(d) Rockwell hardness number
Answer: (b) Knoop hardness number
Q: Property of the material, which describes the resistance to abrasion, is _______________?
(a) Hardness
(b) Yield strength
(c) Modulus of elasticity
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) Hardness
Q: Ultimate tensile strength refers to _______________?
(a) Stress before rupture
(b) Stress after rupture
(c) Longitudinal compressive strength
(d) Horizontal compressive strength
Answer: (a) Stress before rupture
Q: Ability of an orthodontic wire to spring back to its original shape is evaluated by _______________?
(a) Brittleness
(b) Resilience
(c) Tensile strength
(d) Toughness
Answer: (b) Resilience
Q: The point at which a stress of a material exhibits a specific limited deviation P is called _______________?
(a) Proportional limit
(b) Tensile strength
(c) Ultimate strength
(d) Yield strength
Answer: (a) Proportional limit
Q: Compressive stress is computed by dividing the external force by the _______________?
(a) Area of the test specimen upon which the weight rests
(b) Elasticity of the test specimen in strain
(c) Length of the test specimen beneath the force
(d) Strain of the test specimen per unit length
Answer: (a) Area of the test specimen upon which the weight rests
Q: The proportional limit is defined as _______________?
(a) The maximum stress in a structure
(b) The minimum force required to cause a structure to break
(c) The maximum stress that can be induced without permanent deformation
(d) The maximum elongation under tension that can be measured before failure
Answer: (c) The maximum stress that can be induced without permanent deformation
Q: Stress is defined as _______________?
(a) An applied load or force
(b) A deformation resulting from an applied load
(c) An external force opposing an applied load
(d) An internal force opposing an applied load
Answer: (a) An applied load or force
Q: Which of the following is present in the powder of the acrylic resin _______________?
(a) Methyl methacrylate
(b) Benzoyl peroxide
(c) Hydroquinone
(d) D-methyl paratoluidine
Answer: (b) Benzoyl peroxide
Q: Boiling point of methyl methacrylate _______________?
(a) B.P of water
(b) < B.P of water
(c) Equal of BP of water
(d) Is at normal room temperature
Answer: (b) < B.P of water
Q: The main advantage of composites over unfilled direct filling resin is their _______________?
(a) Higher solubility in saliva
(b) Lower modulus of elasticity
(c) Esthetic excellence
(d) Lower thermal co-efficient of expansion
Answer: (c) Esthetic excellence
Q: Composite has _______________?
(a) Resin
(b) Filler
(c) Resin & Filler
(d) None
Answer: (c) Resin & Filler
Q: Acrylic resins are used for _______________?
(a) Anterior restorations
(b) Temporary bridges
(c) Denture base
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
Q: To prevent porosity in self-cure acrylic resin, curing should be carried in _______________?
(a) Cold water
(b) Hot water
(c) Under tap water
(d) Under vacuum pressure
Answer: (b) Hot water
Q: Porosity present in an acrylic denture is usually the result of _______________?
(a) A prolonged curing cycle
(b) Lack of sufficient pressure applied to flask
(c) Insufficient acrylic resin monomer
(d) Prolonged bench cooling after curing
Answer: (b) Lack of sufficient pressure applied to flask
Q: Cross linking in denture base resin is contributed by _______________?
(a) Glycol dimetharylate
(b) Benzoyl peroxide
(c) N-para toluidine
(d) Methyl methacrylate
Answer: (a) Glycol dimetharylate
Q: Hydroquinone is added to methyl methacrylate monomer _______________?
(a) To prevent polymerization during storage
(b) To initiate release of free radicals
(c) To enable polymerization reaction at room temperature
(d) All of the above
Answer: (a) To prevent polymerization during storage
Q: Which of the following inhibitor accelerator system uses light activation composite?
(a) Diketone-amine
(b) Organic acid-metal oxide
(c) Organic acid-peroxide
(d) Peroxide-amine
Answer: (a) Diketone-amine
Q: Which of the following is an example of a composite material?
(a) A filled resin
(b) Colloidal silica
(c) Gold alloy
(d) Wax
Answer: (a) A filled resin
Q: In heat cure denture base acrylic resins the monomer is _______________?
(a) Methacrylate
(b) Ethylmethacrylate
(c) Methyl ethyl methacrylate
(d) Polymethylmethacrylate
Answer: (b) Ethylmethacrylate
Q: Light cure system, side effect is ______________?
(a) Iritis
(b) Cataract
(c) Conjunctivitis
(d) Retinal damage
Answer: (b) Cataract
Q: Bonding of composite resins to tooth structure is by _______________?
(a) Covalent bond
(b) Ionic bond
(c) Mechanical
(d) Van der Waals forces
Answer: (c) Mechanical
Q: The type of spatula used to mix composite is _______________?
(a) Plastic
(b) Stainless steel
(c) Iron
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b) Stainless steel
Q: Which of the following may result if an excessive amount of monomer is incorporated into an acrylic resin mixture?
(a) Excessive expansion
(b) Low impact strength
(c) Excessive shrinkage
(d) Excessive brittleness
Answer: (c) Excessive shrinkage
Q: Benzoin methyl ether in a polymer indicates that they may be cured in the presence of _______________?
(a) UV light
(b) Visible light
(c) Infrared light
(d) Diketone
Answer: (b) Visible light
Q: Porosity of denture base is due to _______________?
(a) Packing at dough stage
(b) Curing at 160ยฐF for 9 hrs
(c) Inadequate pressure
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
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