PN cadet Online Tests Preparation

Ultimate Guide to PN Cadet Online Tests Preparation: Tips and Strategies

Effective PN Cadet Online Tests Preparation is crucial for anyone aiming to succeed in the competitive entrance exams for the Pakistan Navy. To achieve the best results, candidates should focus on a structured study plan, incorporating both theoretical knowledge and practical skills. Utilizing online resources, such as practice tests, video tutorials, and interactive study groups, can greatly enhance your understanding of key subjects.

Additionally, time management plays a vital role in PN Cadet Online Tests Preparation, ensuring you allocate sufficient time to each section while keeping track of progress. With consistent effort, discipline, and the right preparation strategies, you can increase your chances of passing the PN Cadet Online Tests with flying colors.

Q. Second ionization energy

  • a. is always less than first ionization energy
  • b. is always greater than first ionization energy
  • c. is equal to the first ionization energy
  • d. may be greater or less than the first ionization energy depending on the nature of the element

Q. “Ionization energies of the elements of the 5th group are greater than those of 6th group”. It is because

  • a. 5th group elements have less electronegativity
  • b. 6th group of elements have greater shielding effect
  • c. 5th group elements have greater shielding effect
  • d. 5th group elements have half filled atomic orbitals

Q. A sodium lamp emits yellow light with a wavelength of 589 nm. What is the energy of a single photon in this light?

  • a. 3.37 x 10⁻¹⁹ Joules
  • b. 1.12 x 10⁻²⁵ Joules
  • c. 1.17 x 10⁻³³ Joules
  • d. 5.09 x 10¹⁵ Joules

Q. The energy associated with the transition of an electron from the n=1 state to the n=3 state of H atoms is:

  • a. +1.74 x 10⁻¹⁷ Joules
  • b. +1.94 x 10⁻¹⁸ Joules
  • c. +1.94 x 10⁻¹⁸ Joules
  • d. -1.74 x 10⁻¹⁷ Joules

Q. All of the following are electromagnetic radiations except

  • a. red light
  • b. sound waves
  • c. x-rays
  • d. photon

Q. This shape of a 2s orbital resembles:

  • a. a hockey puck
  • b. an (American) football
  • c. an ellipse
  • d. a sphere

Q. Which orbital of the following has a principal quantum number of 3 and an angular momentum quantum number of 2?

  • a. 3s
  • b. 3d
  • c. 4f
  • d. 3f

Q. Which of the following has the highest energy?

  • a. gamma rays
  • b. X-rays
  • c. Ultra-violet radiation
  • d. radio waves

Q. All of the following are correct for atomic orbitals except

  • a. p-sub energy level has 3 orbitals
  • b. s-orbital has spherical shape
  • c. energy of 4s is less than that of 4d
  • d. All d orbitals have 4 lobes

Q. Various values of the quantum numbers (n, l, m, ms) are listed below. Which is a possible set of values for one of the d electrons in an iron atom in its ground state?

  • a. (1, 1, 0, ½)
  • b. (4, 0, 1, ½)
  • c. (4, 1, 0, -1/2)
  • d. (3, 2, 1, -1/2)

Q. How many orbitals are allowed for principal quantum number (n) of 3?

  • a. 9
  • b. 8
  • c. 6
  • d. 4

Q. Which of the following orbitals are degenerate in a multielectron atom?

  • a. 3d orbitals
  • b. 3s, 3p, 3d orbitals
  • c. 1s, 2s orbitals
  • d. 2d orbitals

Q. The quantum number that specifies the way the orbital is oriented in space is:

  • a. the electron spin quantum number
  • b. the magnetic quantum number
  • c. the angular momentum quantum number
  • d. the principal quantum number

Q. Which of the following has the largest wavelength?

  • a. visible light
  • b. x-rays
  • c. infrared light
  • d. ultraviolet radiation

Q. Select the arrangement of electromagnetic radiation which starts with the lowest energy and increases to greatest energy.

  • a. radio, visible, infrared, visible, ultraviolet
  • b. microwave, infrared, visible, ultraviolet
  • c. visible, ultraviolet, infrared, gamma rays
  • d. X-radiation, visible, infrared, microwave

Q. A radio station broadcasts music at 99.1 MHz. The wavelength of these waves is:

  • a. 1.88 x 10⁻² m
  • b. 0.330 m
  • c. 3.03 m
  • d. 5.33 x 10² m

Q. Green light has a wavelength of 5200 Å. Calculate the energy of one photon of green light.

  • a. 3.4 x 10⁻⁴⁰ J
  • b. 3.4 x 10⁻³⁰ J
  • c. 3.8 x 10⁻²⁶ J
  • d. 3.8 x 10⁻¹⁹ J

Q. The size of an atomic orbital is associated with:

  • a. principal quantum number (n)
  • b. angular momentum quantum number (l)
  • c. magnetic quantum number (mₗ)
  • d. spin quantum number (mₛ)

Q. Which of the following is a correct set of quantum numbers for an electron in a 5f orbital?

  • a. n = 5, l = 3, mₗ = +1
  • b. n = 5, l = 2, mₗ = +3
  • c. n = 4, l = 3, mₗ = 0
  • d. n = 4, l = 2, mₗ = +1

Q. In the quantum mechanical treatment of the hydrogen atom, which one of the following combinations of quantum numbers is not allowed?

  • a. 3, 1, -1
  • b. 3, 2, 2
  • c. 3, 2, -1
  • d. 3, 3, 2

Q. “Each electron in an atom must have its own unique set of quantum numbers” is a statement of

  • a. Aufbau principle
  • b. Pauli exclusion principle
  • c. Hund’s rule
  • d. Periodic law

Q. The effective nuclear charge for an atom is less than the actual nuclear charge due to

  • a. Shielding
  • b. Penetration
  • c. Paramagnetism
  • d. Electron-pair repulsion

Q. “Electrons added to atomic orbitals of the same energy will remain unpaired with parallel spins until the subshell is more than half-filled” is a statement of

  • a. Aufbau principle
  • b. Pauli exclusion principle
  • c. Hund’s rule
  • d. Periodic law

Q. All of the following statements are correct for atomic structure and quantum numbers except

  • a. In a given atom, the maximum number of electrons having principal quantum number n = 3, is 18
  • b. The number of orbitals in a given f subshell is 7
  • c. For n=4, the largest possible value of l is 3
  • d. For n=4, the largest possible value of mₗ is 2

Q. Select the correct electron configuration for Cu (Z=29)

  • a. [Ar] 4s²3d⁹
  • b. [Ar]4s¹3d¹⁰
  • c. [Ar]4s²4p⁶3d³
  • d. [Ar]4s¹4d⁹

Q. Arrange potassium, rubidium, calcium, and barium in order of increasing atomic size.

  • a. K < Ca < Rb < Ba
  • b. Ca < K < Rb < Ba
  • c. Ca < K < Ba < Rb
  • d. K < Ca < Ba < Rb

Q. Element having the smallest atomic radius among the following is

  • a. Li
  • b. Ne
  • c. Rb
  • d. Sr

Q. The arrangement of sodium, oxygen, fluorine, and strontium on the basis of increasing first ionization energy is

  • a. Na < Sr < O < F
  • b. Sr < Na < O < F
  • c. Sr < Na < F < O
  • d. Na < Sr < F < O

Q. Elements with _____ first ionization energies and _______ electron affinities generally form cations.

  • a. low, very negative
  • b. high, positive or slightly negative
  • c. low, positive or slightly negative
  • d. high, very negative

Q. In a Millikan oil-drop experiment, the charges on several different oil drops were as follows: -5.92; -4.44; -2.96; -8.88. The units are arbitrary. What is the likely value of the electronic charge in these arbitrary units?

  • a. -1.11
  • b. -1.48
  • c. -2.22
  • d. -2.96
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Q. Which of the following compounds has maximum ionic character?

  • a. NaCl
  • b. CsF
  • c. KBr
  • d. MgCl₂

Q. Which of the following molecules or ions is nonplanar, i.e., has at least one atom that is not in the same plane as the others?

  • a. BH₃
  • b. NF₃
  • c. SO₃
  • d. CO₃²⁻

Q. Which of the following best describes the shape and polarity of the carbon disulfide, CS₂, molecule?

  • a. bent and polar
  • b. linear and non-polar
  • c. pyramidal and polar
  • d. bent and non-polar

Q. Which of the following molecules has the smallest angle between adjacent bonds?

  • a. CO₂
  • b. CH₄
  • c. H₂O
  • d. NH₃

Q. The shape of hydronium ion H₃O⁺ is:

  • a. planar
  • b. see-saw
  • c. trigonal planar
  • d. trigonal pyramidal

Q. Which of the following pairs of atoms are least likely to form an ionic compound?

  • a. Ni, O
  • b. Na, F
  • c. Cu, Cl
  • d. Li, Mg

Q. Which of the following pairs of atoms are most likely to form a covalent compound?

  • a. Na, F
  • b. Cu, Cl
  • c. C, O
  • d. Li, F

Q. Which molecule has one pair of nonbonding electrons on the central atom?

  • a. PCl₃
  • b. CO₂
  • c. SO₃
  • d. BF₃

Q. Which of the following will have the largest dipole moment?

  • a. HF
  • b. HCl
  • c. HBr
  • d. F₂

Q. CO₂ is a nonpolar molecule (μ=0) whereas SO₂ is polar (μ=1.62D). This difference is due to the fact that:

  • a. CO₂ has an even number of double bonds whereas SO₂ has an odd number of double bonds
  • b. C and O are in different groups whereas S and O are in the same group
  • c. The C-O bond is nonpolar while the S-O bond is polar
  • d. CO₂ is linear whereas SO₂ is not linear

Q. What is the state of hybridization of the carbon atoms in ethylene, C₂H₂?

  • a. sp²
  • b. sp
  • c. sp³
  • d. sp³d²

Q. The type(s) of bonding present in a sample of sodium nitrate, NaNO₃, are:

  • a. covalent bonds only
  • b. ionic bonds only
  • c. covalent and ionic bonds
  • d. ionic and metallic bonds

Q. The C=C double bond in ethene, C₂H₄, is composed of:

  • a. two π bonds
  • b. covalent bonds
  • c. two sigma bonds
  • d. one π bond + one sigma bond

Q. All of the following statements are false except:

  • a. The number of molecular orbitals (MO’s) in a molecule equals twice the number of constituent atomic orbitals.
  • b. As bonding molecular orbitals (MO’s) become more stable, antibonding MO’s become equally less stable.
  • c. In MO’s, the number of bonding electrons equals the number of antibonding electrons.
  • d. Each bonding MO can accommodate only one electron.
    (b)

Q. All of the following statements are false except:

  • a. The molecular orbitals (MO’s) in a molecule equals twice the number of constituent atomic orbitals.
  • b. As bonding MO’s become more stable, antibonding MO’s become equally less stable.
  • c. In MO’s, the number of bonding electrons equals the number of antibonding electrons.
  • d. Each bonding MO can accommodate only one electron.
    (b)

Q. What is the hybridization of phosphorus in PCl₃?

  • a. sp²
  • b. sp³
  • c. sp
  • d. sp³d²

Q. Analysis of an unknown substance showed that it has a high boiling point and is brittle. It is an insulator as a solid but conducts electricity when melted. Which of the following substances would have those characteristics?

  • a. HCl
  • b. Al
  • c. KBr
  • d. SiF₄

Q. Arrange the following bonds in order of increasing bond strength:
C-F, C-Br, C-I, C-Cl

  • a. C-F < C-Cl < C-Br < C-I
  • b. C-I < C-Br < C-Cl < C-F
  • c. C-Br < C-I < C-Cl < C-F
  • d. C-I < C-Br < C-F < C-Cl

Q. Based on electronegativity trends in the periodic table, predict which of the following compounds will have the greatest % ionic character in its bonds.

  • a. H₂O
  • b. LiI
  • c. RbF
  • d. HCl

Q. According to VSEPR theory, a molecule with the general formula AX₃ will have a _____ molecular shape.

  • a. linear
  • b. bent
  • c. trigonal planar
  • d. tetrahedral

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