AFNS Practice Tests Online here for initial tests

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Why AFNS Practice Tests Online Are Essential for Initial Test Preparation

Prepare effectively for your AFNS initial tests with our comprehensiveย AFNS Practice Tests Online, designed to help you achieve success. Our practice tests include all questions curated from past papers of AFNS initial tests, ensuring you get the most accurate and relevant preparation material. Whether you’re aiming to strengthen your knowledge or familiarize yourself with the exam pattern, these MCQs are your ultimate resource.

For those looking to excel in the AFNS initial tests, mastering these questions is the key to achieving the best results. Start your preparation today with our expertly crafted AFNS Practice Tests Online and boost your confidence for the upcoming exams!

Top Benefits of Using AFNS Practice Tests Online for Exam Success

Biology MCQs

  1. When water enters the plant, the pressure is known as:
    A. Osmotic Pressure
    B. Turgor Pressure
    C. Root Pressure
    D. Transpiration Pull
    Answer: B. Turgor Pressure
  2. Lactic acid fermentation occurs in:
    A. Liver
    B. Muscles
    C. Lungs
    D. Stomach
    Answer: B. Muscles
  3. Hemoglobin contains:
    A. Iron
    B. Calcium
    C. Sodium
    D. Potassium
    Answer: A. Iron
  4. The disease of lungs which causes cough and fever is called:
    A. Asthma
    B. Tuberculosis
    C. Pneumonia
    D. Bronchitis
    Answer: C. Pneumonia
  5. Hormones are released by:
    A. Nervous System
    B. Endocrine System
    C. Digestive System
    D. Circulatory System
    Answer: B. Endocrine System

Physics MCQs

  1. When electrons enter an electric field, the kinetic energy:
    A. Increases
    B. Decreases
    C. Remains Constant
    D. Becomes Zero
    Answer: A. Increases
  2. The path followed by a projectile is known as:
    A. Parabola
    B. Hyperbola
    C. Ellipse
    D. Circle
    Answer: A. Parabola
  3. Lenz’s Law is related to:
    A. Conservation of Energy
    B. Conservation of Momentum
    C. Electromagnetic Induction
    D. Gravitational Force
    Answer: C. Electromagnetic Induction
  4. Angular momentum is a concept in:
    A. Thermodynamics
    B. Mechanics
    C. Electromagnetism
    D. Optics
    Answer: B. Mechanics
  5. The unit of potential energy (P.E) is:
    A. Joule
    B. Volt
    C. Electron Volt
    D. Newton
    Answer: A. Joule

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Physics Tests Quiz (Matric Level)

1 / 25

The energy obtained from electric cells and batteries as a result of a chemical reaction is called?

2 / 25

1 radian = โ€ฆโ€ฆโ€ฆโ€ฆ.

3 / 25

In step up transformer number of turns in primary coil is โ€ฆโ€ฆโ€ฆโ€ฆ..than the number of turns in secondary coil.

4 / 25

The first resonance length in a closed pipe is 20 cm then second resonance occurs at:

5 / 25

At constant volume temperature is increased. Then number of collisions per unit time will:-

6 / 25

Central heating systems in buildings work on the principle of?

7 / 25

The altitude of geostationary orbits in which communications satellites are launched above the surface of Earth is:

8 / 25

A metal sheet with a circular hole is heated. The hole will:-

9 / 25

The acceleration is inversely proportional to ________?

10 / 25

The temperature 50ยฐC on celsius scale is equal to Fahrenheit scale:-

11 / 25

Today we believe that light has :

12 / 25

If a body does change its position concerning its surroundings, it is said to be at?

13 / 25

The horn like part of human ear which can be seen from outside is:-

14 / 25

In step up transformer number of turns in secondary coil is โ€ฆโ€ฆโ€ฆโ€ฆ..than the number of turns in primary coil.

15 / 25

The wire used to make heating elements in electric kettles and irons are made of

16 / 25

Amount of substance in term of numbers is measured in:-

17 / 25

Mathematically SHM is represented as:-

18 / 25

The thermal conductivity of dry air is_______ Wm-1K-1:-

19 / 25

Amount of a substance in terms of numbers is measured inโ€ฆโ€ฆ.?

20 / 25

Density of water is Max at_____:-

21 / 25

Gastroscope is used to diagnose:-

22 / 25

The value of gravitational constant is:-

23 / 25

A moving car possesses?

24 / 25

Al-Haitham wrote a book on a optics called:-

25 / 25

In the S.L system the unit of torque is____.

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Physics Tests Quiz (Inter Level)

1 / 25

The gravitational potential has identical dimensions as:-

2 / 25

The tide energy is due to gravitational pull of:-

3 / 25

In carnot cycle:-

4 / 25

Motion of simple pendulum is an example of:-

5 / 25

If f is the frequency of body executing SHM, its angular frequency is:-

6 / 25

The frequency of second pendulum is:-

7 / 25

The least count in the metre rodย  is 0.1cm. Taking all precautions, the most possible error in the length of the rod measured with it:-

8 / 25

The SI unit of power is:-

9 / 25

The area between velocity time graph and the time axis is numerically equal to:-

10 / 25

If P is the momentum of an object of mass m, the expression (Pยฒ/2m)has base unit identical to:-

11 / 25

[M0L0T-1] refers to the quantity:-

12 / 25

A particle is revolving in a circle of radius r. its displacement after completing half the revolution will be:-

13 / 25

A single vector that have the same effect as all the original vectors taken together is called the:-ย 

14 / 25

A string fixed at two ends vibrates in a whole segments. The standing wave pattern is:-

15 / 25

Which contains a pair of longitudinal wave and transverse electromagnetic waves:-

16 / 25

The distance covered by a body in a unit time is called:-

17 / 25

The earth surface or a point at infinity from the earth can be chosen as zero reference level of:-

18 / 25

The critical speed of an artificial satellite is:-

19 / 25

A fighter plane is moving in a circular loop of radius r, its minimum velocity at the highest point of the circle will be:-โˆš

20 / 25

The length ofย  simple pendulum can be calculated by the expression:-

21 / 25

In SHM, the velocity of a particle is maximum at:-

22 / 25

Conventional source of energy:-

23 / 25

For a body executing SHM, its _____ remain constant:-

24 / 25

Beats can be used to:-

25 / 25

The work done will be negative, if the force and displacement are________ to each other:-

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The average score is 42%

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Chemistry MCQs

  1. Which one is not a base?
    A. BF3
    B. NH3
    C. PH3
    D. KOH
    Answer: A. BF3
  2. Hydrogen-containing series is known as:
    A. Alkane Series
    B. Alkene Series
    C. Alkyne Series
    D. Hydrocarbon Series
    Answer: D. Hydrocarbon Series
  3. Lipids dissolve in:
    A. Water
    B. Alcohol
    C. Organic Solvents
    D. Acids
    Answer: C. Organic Solvents
  4. The most abundant organic compound in the human body is:
    A. Protein
    B. Lipids
    C. Water
    D. Carbohydrates
    Answer: C. Water
  5. Isotopes are atoms of the same element with different:
    A. Atomic Numbers
    B. Mass Numbers
    C. Electron Configurations
    D. Chemical Properties
    Answer: B. Mass Numbers

English MCQs

  1. Synonyms of “Bog”:
    A. Swamp
    B. Desert
    C. Mountain
    D. Forest
    Answer: A. Swamp
  2. Antonyms of “Comfort”:
    A. Ease
    B. Discomfort
    C. Relief
    D. Relaxation
    Answer: B. Discomfort
  3. Correct form of the verb: “He has worked hard, that’s why he _____ first in class.”
    A. Stand
    B. Stands
    C. Stood
    D. Standing
    Answer: C. Stood
  4. Odd one out: Write, White, Wrist.
    A. Write
    B. White
    C. Wrist
    Answer: B. White
  5. Preposition: Multan has very hot weather _____ summer.
    A. In
    B. On
    C. At
    D. For
    Answer: A. In

General Science MCQs

  1. Deficiency of potassium causes:
    A. Stunted Growth
    B. Anemia
    C. Goiter
    D. Rickets
    Answer: A. Stunted Growth
  2. Study of fossils is called:
    A. Paleontology
    B. Histology
    C. Geology
    D. Anthropology
    Answer: A. Paleontology
  3. Study of tissues is called:
    A. Histology
    B. Cytology
    C. Pathology
    D. Physiology
    Answer: A. Histology
  4. Heating of food in a microwave is an example of:
    A. Solvent Extraction
    B. Radiation
    C. Conduction
    D. Convection
    Answer: B. Radiation
  5. Golden algae are called:
    A. Diatoms
    B. Chrysophytes
    C. Euglenoids
    D. Dinoflagellates
    Answer: B. Chrysophytes

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Math MCQs

  1. A boy is 3 years old, and his sister is 3 times older than him. What will be the age of his sister when the boy is 11 years old?
    A. 15
    B. 17
    C. 19
    D. 21
    Answer: B. 17
  2. 20% of one-tenth of 90 is:
    A. 1.8
    B. 2.0
    C. 1.5
    D. 1.2
    Answer: A. 1.8
  3. A boy has an average of 50 in 5 tests. How much should he score in the next test to have an average of 70?
    A. 120
    B. 130
    C. 140
    D. 150
    Answer: C. 140
  4. If one dozen pencils cost 27, then the price of 4 pencils is:
    A. 7
    B. 8
    C. 9
    D. 10
    Answer: C. 9
  5. Out of 500 students, 340 are present. The percentage of absent students is:
    A. 30%
    B. 32%
    C. 34%
    D. 36%
    Answer: B. 32%
  6. A train is moving at a speed of 90 km/h. How much distance will it cover in 12 minutes?
    A. 15 km
    B. 18 km
    C. 20 km
    D. 22 km
    Answer: B. 18 km
  7. If the 15th day of the month is Monday, then the 4th day of the month is:
    A. Tuesday
    B. Wednesday
    C. Thursday
    D. Friday
    Answer: C. Thursday
  8. If the 2nd day of the month is Sunday, then the 23rd day will be:
    A. Sunday
    B. Monday
    C. Tuesday
    D. Wednesday
    Answer: A. Sunday

Biology MCQs

  1. At the depth of __________ or more, a little light is left to power photosynthesis.
    A. 500 feet
    B. 600 feet
    C. 700 feet
    D. 800 feet
    Answer: B. 600 feet
  2. The largest ecosystem on Earth forms about _______ of its surface.
    A. 71%
    B. 75%
    C. 80%
    D. 85%
    Answer: A. 71%
  3. The incidence of stones of calcium phosphate is:
    A. 10%
    B. 15%
    C. 20%
    D. 25%
    Answer: B. 15%
  4. Chronic arthritis includes:
    A. Osteoarthritis
    B. Rheumatoid arthritis
    C. Gouty arthritis
    D. All of them
    Answer: D. All of them
  5. Due to air pollution, we are facing the ____________.
    A. Ozone layer depletion
    B. Global warming
    C. Acid rain
    D. Deforestation
    Answer: A. Ozone layer depletion
  6. The nutrients in an aquatic ecosystem tend to be ___________ near the surface.
    A. Concentrated
    B. Diluted
    C. Absent
    D. Neutral
    Answer: A. Concentrated
  7. Which is not a component of the internal environment of living organisms that may be affected by fluctuations in the external environment?
    A. Light
    B. Temperature
    C. pH
    D. Water
    Answer: A. Light
  8. The ureters of both kidneys drain into the:
    A. Urinary bladder
    B. Urethra
    C. Kidney
    D. Liver
    Answer: A. Urinary bladder
  9. Highly condensed portions of chromatin are called:
    A. Euchromatin
    B. Heterochromatin
    C. Nucleosomes
    D. Chromosomes
    Answer: B. Heterochromatin
  10. Diphtheria is an example of a ____________ disorder.
    A. Genetic
    B. Metabolic
    C. Pathogenic
    D. Hormonal
    Answer: C. Pathogenic
  11. Organisms within the biosphere interact to control:
    A. Chemical conditions of the biosphere
    B. Physical conditions of the biosphere
    C. Both a and b
    D. None of the above
    Answer: C. Both a and b
  12. The prokaryotes may have arisen more than ____________ years ago.
    A. 2.5 billion
    B. 3.5 billion
    C. 4.5 billion
    D. 5.5 billion
    Answer: B. 3.5 billion
  13. Euglena moves with the help of:
    A. Cilia
    B. Flagellum
    C. Pseudopodia
    D. Tentacles
    Answer: B. Flagellum
  14. Which is responsible for sensing pain?
    A. Free nerve endings
    B. Hair follicles
    C. Sweat glands
    D. Melanocytes
    Answer: A. Free nerve endings

Logical Reasoning MCQs

  1. Sister of my brotherโ€™s son is my:
    A. Niece
    B. Nephew
    C. Cousin
    D. Sister
    Answer: A. Niece
  2. If (2 + 2) = 8, then what is the value of (3 + 3)?
    A. 12
    B. 15
    C. 18
    D. 20
    Answer: C. 18
  3. One-third of 120 is:
    A. 30
    B. 40
    C. 50
    D. 60
    Answer: B. 40

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Math and Logical Reasoning MCQs

  1. In a class of 24 students, ยผ are male. What is the percentage of females?
    A. 70%
    B. 75%
    C. 80%
    D. 85%
    Answer: B. 75%
  2. A man walks towards the north, then turns left, then turns right. His present direction is:
    A. North
    B. South
    C. East
    D. West
    Answer: A. North
  3. The third letter when “Augmented” is arranged alphabetically is:
    A. A
    B. E
    C. G
    D. M
    Answer: B. E
  4. An aeroplane flies due to:
    A. Thrust
    B. Lift
    C. Drag
    D. Gravity
    Answer: B. Lift
  5. Vehicle is to wheels as Sound is to:
    A. Waves
    B. Frequency
    C. Amplitude
    D. Pitch
    Answer: A. Waves
  6. A leap year comes after:
    A. 2 years
    B. 3 years
    C. 4 years
    D. 5 years
    Answer: C. 4 years
  7. A train covers 120 km in 1 hour and 40 minutes. How much distance will it cover in 15 minutes?
    A. 20 km
    B. 25 km
    C. 30 km
    D. 35 km
    Answer: C. 30 km
  8. If yesterday was Friday, tomorrow will be:
    A. Saturday
    B. Sunday
    C. Monday
    D. Tuesday
    Answer: B. Sunday
  9. If the 4th day of the month is Sunday, then the 14th day is:
    A. Monday
    B. Tuesday
    C. Wednesday
    D. Thursday
    Answer: A. Monday
  10. A car is moving at 120 km/h. How much distance will it cover in 10 minutes?
    A. 15 km
    B. 20 km
    C. 25 km
    D. 30 km
    Answer: B. 20 km

Biology MCQs

  1. Apical meristems are found at the tips of:
    A. Roots
    B. Shoots
    C. Both a and b
    D. None of them
    Answer: C. Both a and b
  2. To achieve better living conditions, it is essential to:
    A. Increase food production
    B. Decrease expenditure
    C. Control population growth
    D. None of them
    Answer: C. Control population growth
  3. Alzheimer’s disease was discovered in:
    A. 1806
    B. 1877
    C. 1907
    D. 1977
    Answer: C. 1907
  4. A similar group of individuals who can interbreed and produce organisms of their own kind forms a:
    A. Population
    B. Community
    C. Species
    D. Succession
    Answer: C. Species
  5. In the case of human cells, mitosis takes:
    A. 30 seconds
    B. 30 minutes
    C. 3 hours
    D. 3 minutes
    Answer: B. 30 minutes
  6. The thin filament of myofilament has a diameter of:
    A. 7-8 nm
    B. 10-12 nm
    C. 15-20 nm
    D. 25-30 nm
    Answer: A. 7-8 nm
  7. G1 phase is also called:
    A. DNA synthesis phase
    B. Pre-DNA synthesis phase
    C. Post-DNA synthesis phase
    D. Both a and c
    Answer: B. Pre-DNA synthesis phase
  8. The theory of evolution was published in:
    A. 1908
    B. 1809
    C. 1819
    D. 1919
    Answer: B. 1809
  9. At the distal end, the femur forms the knee joint with the proximal end of _______ parallel bones.
    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4
    Answer: B. 2
  10. Crossing over occurs between _____________ of homologous chromosomes.
    A. Sister pair of chromosomes
    B. Sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes
    C. Non-sister chromatids
    D. All of them
    Answer: C. Non-sister chromatids
  11. Xerophytes have adaptations for reduced rates of:
    A. Transduction
    B. Transformation
    C. Transpiration
    D. None of them
    Answer: C. Transpiration
  12. Successive amino acid-bearing tRNAs will bind at:
    A. A-site
    B. B-site
    C. C-site
    D. E-site
    Answer: A. A-site

AFNS Practice Tests Online: Your Ultimate Guide to Past Paper MCQs

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Living and Non-Living

  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of living organisms but not of non-living things?
    a) Ability to move
    b) Growth and reproduction
    c) Conductivity
    d) Inertia
    Answer: b) Growth and reproduction

Cell Structure and Function

  1. The powerhouse of the cell is:
    a) Nucleus
    b) Mitochondria
    c) Ribosome
    d) Endoplasmic reticulum
    Answer: b) Mitochondria

Plant Physiology

  1. Photosynthesis primarily occurs in which organelle?
    a) Mitochondria
    b) Chloroplast
    c) Ribosome
    d) Nucleus
    Answer: b) Chloroplast

Animal Physiology

  1. The functional unit of the kidney is called:
    a) Neuron
    b) Alveolus
    c) Nephron
    d) Villus
    Answer: c) Nephron

Reproduction in Plants and Animals

  1. Which type of reproduction results in genetically identical offspring?
    a) Sexual reproduction
    b) Asexual reproduction
    c) Parthenogenesis
    d) Fertilization
    Answer: b) Asexual reproduction

Genetic Basis of Inheritance

  1. Which scientist is known as the “Father of Genetics”?
    a) Charles Darwin
    b) Gregor Mendel
    c) Watson and Crick
    d) Robert Hooke
    Answer: b) Gregor Mendel

Origin and Evolution of Life

  1. The theory of natural selection was proposed by:
    a) Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
    b) Charles Darwin
    c) Alfred Wegener
    d) Louis Pasteur
    Answer: b) Charles Darwin

Human Disorders

  1. Diabetes is caused by the deficiency of:
    a) Insulin
    b) Thyroxine
    c) Hemoglobin
    d) Estrogen
    Answer: a) Insulin

Ecology and Ecosystems

  1. Which of the following is a biotic component of an ecosystem?
    a) Sunlight
    b) Water
    c) Soil
    d) Plants
    Answer: d) Plants

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Units and Measurements

  1. The SI unit of force is:
    a) Newton
    b) Joule
    c) Watt
    d) Pascal
    Answer: a) Newton

Mechanics

  1. Newtonโ€™s First Law is also known as the law of:
    a) Acceleration
    b) Inertia
    c) Momentum
    d) Energy conservation
    Answer: b) Inertia

Heat Transfer

  1. The transfer of heat through direct contact is called:
    a) Conduction
    b) Convection
    c) Radiation
    d) Sublimation
    Answer: a) Conduction

Vibrations and Waves

  1. Sound waves are:
    a) Longitudinal waves
    b) Transverse waves
    c) Electromagnetic waves
    d) Mechanical waves
    Answer: a) Longitudinal waves

Light and Sound

  1. The speed of light in vacuum is approximately:
    a) 3 ร— 10โถ m/s
    b) 3 ร— 10โท m/s
    c) 3 ร— 10โธ m/s
    d) 3 ร— 10โน m/s
    Answer: c) 3 ร— 10โธ m/s

Electricity and Magnetism

  1. The unit of electric current is:
    a) Coulomb
    b) Volt
    c) Ohm
    d) Ampere
    Answer: d) Ampere

Modern Physics

  1. The scientist who proposed the theory of relativity was:
    a) Isaac Newton
    b) Albert Einstein
    c) Galileo Galilei
    d) Nikola Tesla
    Answer: b) Albert Einstein

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The Atomic Structure

  1. The central part of an atom is called:
    a) Proton
    b) Electron
    c) Nucleus
    d) Neutron
    Answer: c) Nucleus

Chemical Bonding

  1. Ionic bonds are formed by:
    a) Sharing of electrons
    b) Transfer of electrons
    c) Sharing of protons
    d) Transfer of neutrons
    Answer: b) Transfer of electrons

States of Matter

  1. Matter exists in how many fundamental states?
    a) Two
    b) Three
    c) Four
    d) Five
    Answer: c) Four

The Periodic Table

  1. The most electronegative element is:
    a) Oxygen
    b) Fluorine
    c) Chlorine
    d) Neon
    Answer: b) Fluorine

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Synonyms

  1. Choose the synonym of “Eloquent”:
    a) Fluent
    b) Silent
    c) Confused
    d) Weak
    Answer: a) Fluent

Antonyms

  1. Choose the antonym of “Optimistic”:
    a) Hopeful
    b) Positive
    c) Pessimistic
    d) Cheerful
    Answer: c) Pessimistic

Idioms and Phrases

  1. “Bite the bullet” means:
    a) To refuse an order
    b) To face a difficult situation bravely
    c) To argue aggressively
    d) To escape from trouble
    Answer: b) To face a difficult situation bravely

Active and Passive Voice

  1. Choose the passive form of “She wrote a letter”:
    a) A letter is written by her.
    b) A letter was written by her.
    c) A letter has been written by her.
    d) A letter was writing by her.
    Answer: b) A letter was written by her.

Spelling

  1. Choose the correct spelling:
    a) Accomodate
    b) Accommodate
    c) Acommodate
    d) Acomadate
    Answer: b) Accommodate

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English Tests Quiz

1 / 25

POINT OUT THE CONJUNCTIONS IN THE FOLLOWING SENTENCE,AND STATE WHETHER THEY ARE CO-ORDINATING OR SUBORDINATING.

Blessed are the merciful, for they shall obtain mercy.

2 / 25

Fill the blank with suitable word:-

The person who looking for sympathy talks_____.

3 / 25

CHOOSEย  THE CORRECT ALTERNATIVE.

You--------------light a match, the room is full of gas.

4 / 25

IN THE FOLLOWING SENTENCE PICK OUT THE ADVERB AND TELL WHAT EACH MODIFIES.

Go there.

5 / 25

Choose the accurate meaning of the word(Host):-

6 / 25

Choose the accurate antonym of the word (Cataclysm):-

7 / 25

Choose the correct word to fill the blank;-

You will have to catch the morning flight, so you ________ better get ready.

8 / 25

Fill the blank with suitable word:-

He said that there was no going back because his decision was_____.

 

9 / 25

Choose theย  word with correct spelling:-

10 / 25

People were ____ kites:-

11 / 25

He is too shy.

12 / 25

It _____ since last night:-

13 / 25

Little Jack Horner sat --------------a corner.

14 / 25

Deathย itself is a horrible name. The underlined word is a/an:-

15 / 25

Choose the correct preposition for following:-

We are accountable ____ Allah for our actions.

16 / 25

Hamza-------------his crucifiers.

17 / 25

Fill the blank with suitable word:-

Just as the disloyalty is the mark of renegades ________ is the mark of craven.

18 / 25

The wordย apparently means:-

19 / 25

Choose the accurate meaning of the underlined word :-

I made up my mind to risk my career.

20 / 25

She ____ English very well:-

21 / 25

DISTINGUISH THE PREPOSTION FROM ADVERB IN THE FOLLOWING SENTENCE.

The man turned round.

22 / 25

Choose the word with correct spelling-

23 / 25

Choose the word with correct spelling:-

24 / 25

Choose the accurate meaning of the word (Manifold):-

25 / 25

Choose the accurate meaning of the word(Commendable):-

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FAQs about AFNS Tests and Jobs

  1. Is there any test for AFNS?
    Yes, the AFNS (Armed Forces Nursing Services) entry process includes an initial test, interview, and medical examination. To prepare, you can use AFNS Practice Tests Online based on past papers.
  2. How much merit is required for AFNS?
    The merit for AFNS depends on your academic scores, test performance, and interview. Generally, a high score in FSc (Pre-Medical) and the initial test is crucial.
  3. How many marks are required for army nursing?
    To qualify for AFNS, you need at least 60% marks in FSc (Pre-Medical) and a competitive score in the initial test. Higher marks increase your chances of selection.
  4. What is a verbal and non-verbal intelligence test?
    A verbal intelligence test assesses language-based reasoning, while a non-verbal test evaluates problem-solving through visual patterns. Both are part of the AFNS initial test.
  5. What is the syllabus for the AFNS initial test?
    The AFNS initial test covers Biology, Chemistry, Physics, English, and Intelligence (verbal and non-verbal). Use AFNS Practice Tests Online for effective preparation.
  6. Can I prepare for AFNS without coaching?
    Yes, you can prepare using AFNS Practice Tests Online and past papers. Self-study with the right resources is sufficient for success.
  7. What is the age limit for AFNS?
    The age limit for AFNS is 17-25 years. Candidates must meet this criterion to apply.
  8. Is there negative marking in the AFNS test?
    No, there is no negative marking in the AFNS initial test, so attempt all questions confidently.
  9. How can I improve my chances of selection in AFNS?
    Focus on thorough preparation using AFNS Practice Tests Online, past papers, and consistent study of the syllabus.
  10. What is the role of an AFNS nurse?
    AFNS nurses provide medical care in military hospitals, support armed forces personnel, and serve during emergencies or conflicts.

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