AFNS Practice Tests Online here for initial tests

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Why AFNS Practice Tests Online Are Essential for Initial Test Preparation

Prepare effectively for your AFNS initial tests with our comprehensiveย AFNS Practice Tests Online, designed to help you achieve success. Our practice tests include all questions curated from past papers of AFNS initial tests, ensuring you get the most accurate and relevant preparation material. Whether you’re aiming to strengthen your knowledge or familiarize yourself with the exam pattern, these MCQs are your ultimate resource.

For those looking to excel in the AFNS initial tests, mastering these questions is the key to achieving the best results. Start your preparation today with our expertly crafted AFNS Practice Tests Online and boost your confidence for the upcoming exams!

Top Benefits of Using AFNS Practice Tests Online for Exam Success

Biology MCQs

  1. When water enters the plant, the pressure is known as:
    A. Osmotic Pressure
    B. Turgor Pressure
    C. Root Pressure
    D. Transpiration Pull
    Answer: B. Turgor Pressure
  2. Lactic acid fermentation occurs in:
    A. Liver
    B. Muscles
    C. Lungs
    D. Stomach
    Answer: B. Muscles
  3. Hemoglobin contains:
    A. Iron
    B. Calcium
    C. Sodium
    D. Potassium
    Answer: A. Iron
  4. The disease of lungs which causes cough and fever is called:
    A. Asthma
    B. Tuberculosis
    C. Pneumonia
    D. Bronchitis
    Answer: C. Pneumonia
  5. Hormones are released by:
    A. Nervous System
    B. Endocrine System
    C. Digestive System
    D. Circulatory System
    Answer: B. Endocrine System

Physics MCQs

  1. When electrons enter an electric field, the kinetic energy:
    A. Increases
    B. Decreases
    C. Remains Constant
    D. Becomes Zero
    Answer: A. Increases
  2. The path followed by a projectile is known as:
    A. Parabola
    B. Hyperbola
    C. Ellipse
    D. Circle
    Answer: A. Parabola
  3. Lenz’s Law is related to:
    A. Conservation of Energy
    B. Conservation of Momentum
    C. Electromagnetic Induction
    D. Gravitational Force
    Answer: C. Electromagnetic Induction
  4. Angular momentum is a concept in:
    A. Thermodynamics
    B. Mechanics
    C. Electromagnetism
    D. Optics
    Answer: B. Mechanics
  5. The unit of potential energy (P.E) is:
    A. Joule
    B. Volt
    C. Electron Volt
    D. Newton
    Answer: A. Joule

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Physics Tests Quiz (Matric Level)

1 / 25

Waves in organ pipe are;-

2 / 25

1 Mile = ?

3 / 25

Dimension of Torque is _________.

4 / 25

The __________ radiation do not require medium.

5 / 25

SI unit of specific heat is:-

6 / 25

Internal diameter of a test tube is measured by:-

7 / 25

The work done in lifting a brick of mass 2 kg through a height of 5 m above the ground will be:

8 / 25

The inertia of a body depends on the________ of the body

9 / 25

Normally the blood pressure of the person is:

10 / 25

In standing wave ฮป = 1/2, in this case the number of loops are:-

11 / 25

After how many years of the invention of telephone, radio was invented:-

12 / 25

The difference of loudness of any unknown sound with the loudness of faintest sound is called:-

13 / 25

A medical procedure using any type of endoscope is called:-

14 / 25

The coefficient of volume expansion of solids is?

15 / 25

The plates of hard disc are made of:-

16 / 25

____ is that force which produces an acceleration of 1m/secยฒ in 1kg of body:-

17 / 25

Gaps are left in railway tracks to compensate thermal expansion during?

18 / 25

6.4 ร— 10 ยณ Km is standard form of:-

19 / 25

The displacement of a particle in SHM in one time period is:-

20 / 25

A thermometric liquid's freezing point should be?

21 / 25

Velocity is ____ unit:-

22 / 25

If switchย  A is closed and B is open , the lamp will be switched:-

23 / 25

Once heats enter a body, it becomes its?

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The unit of work is same as the unit of _______:-

25 / 25

Which of the following is a good radiator of heat?

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Physics Tests Quiz (Inter Level)

1 / 25

The efficiency 'ฮท'ย  of the carnot heat engine is define as:-ย 

2 / 25

Certain organic substances such as sugar and tartaric acid show optical rotation when they are in:-

3 / 25

If magnitude of scalar product and vector products are same, then angle between them is:-

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Number of cylinders in most motorbikes engines is:-

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6 / 25

Two cylinders of equalย  mass, the one with the large diameter has:-

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The moment of inertia of a thin ring or hoop is:-

8 / 25

The displacement of SHMย  is x=x0 cosฯ‰t and if it is written as x=x0sinฯ‰t. Then phase constant will be equal to:-

9 / 25

Soap film exhibit brilliant colours in sun light due to ____ of light:-

10 / 25

When the K.E of vibrating mass and spring is maximum then the P.E of the spring is:-

11 / 25

When torque acting on a system is zero, which of the following will be constant:-

12 / 25

When an aeroplane approaches toward the radar then wavelength of the reflected wave from the aeroplane would be:-

13 / 25

When a body moves in a circle of radius 'r' with linear speed V, its centripetal force is:-

14 / 25

Motorcycle safety helmet extend time of collision hence decreasing the:-

15 / 25

A 5 kg mass falling freely, the force acting on it will be:-

16 / 25

The types of optical fibre are:-

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If the object is held closer to the eye at distance less than 25 cm the image formed will be:-

18 / 25

In SHM, the restoring force is directly proportional to:-

19 / 25

If temperature is 10ยฐC then speed of sound in air will:-

20 / 25

A person of mass 60 kg carries a 15 kg body on the top of building 10m high in 5 minutes. He puts a power in carrying the body:-

21 / 25

The trajectory of projectile is:-

22 / 25

The frictional effect between different layers of flowing fluid is described in term of:-

23 / 25

The mud flies off the tyre of a fast moving car in the direction of:-

24 / 25

A simple pendulum is oscillating in a lift. If the lift starts moving upward with uniform acceleration, the period will:-

25 / 25

The curve representing an adiabatic process is:-

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Chemistry MCQs

  1. Which one is not a base?
    A. BF3
    B. NH3
    C. PH3
    D. KOH
    Answer: A. BF3
  2. Hydrogen-containing series is known as:
    A. Alkane Series
    B. Alkene Series
    C. Alkyne Series
    D. Hydrocarbon Series
    Answer: D. Hydrocarbon Series
  3. Lipids dissolve in:
    A. Water
    B. Alcohol
    C. Organic Solvents
    D. Acids
    Answer: C. Organic Solvents
  4. The most abundant organic compound in the human body is:
    A. Protein
    B. Lipids
    C. Water
    D. Carbohydrates
    Answer: C. Water
  5. Isotopes are atoms of the same element with different:
    A. Atomic Numbers
    B. Mass Numbers
    C. Electron Configurations
    D. Chemical Properties
    Answer: B. Mass Numbers

English MCQs

  1. Synonyms of “Bog”:
    A. Swamp
    B. Desert
    C. Mountain
    D. Forest
    Answer: A. Swamp
  2. Antonyms of “Comfort”:
    A. Ease
    B. Discomfort
    C. Relief
    D. Relaxation
    Answer: B. Discomfort
  3. Correct form of the verb: “He has worked hard, that’s why he _____ first in class.”
    A. Stand
    B. Stands
    C. Stood
    D. Standing
    Answer: C. Stood
  4. Odd one out: Write, White, Wrist.
    A. Write
    B. White
    C. Wrist
    Answer: B. White
  5. Preposition: Multan has very hot weather _____ summer.
    A. In
    B. On
    C. At
    D. For
    Answer: A. In

General Science MCQs

  1. Deficiency of potassium causes:
    A. Stunted Growth
    B. Anemia
    C. Goiter
    D. Rickets
    Answer: A. Stunted Growth
  2. Study of fossils is called:
    A. Paleontology
    B. Histology
    C. Geology
    D. Anthropology
    Answer: A. Paleontology
  3. Study of tissues is called:
    A. Histology
    B. Cytology
    C. Pathology
    D. Physiology
    Answer: A. Histology
  4. Heating of food in a microwave is an example of:
    A. Solvent Extraction
    B. Radiation
    C. Conduction
    D. Convection
    Answer: B. Radiation
  5. Golden algae are called:
    A. Diatoms
    B. Chrysophytes
    C. Euglenoids
    D. Dinoflagellates
    Answer: B. Chrysophytes

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Math MCQs

  1. A boy is 3 years old, and his sister is 3 times older than him. What will be the age of his sister when the boy is 11 years old?
    A. 15
    B. 17
    C. 19
    D. 21
    Answer: B. 17
  2. 20% of one-tenth of 90 is:
    A. 1.8
    B. 2.0
    C. 1.5
    D. 1.2
    Answer: A. 1.8
  3. A boy has an average of 50 in 5 tests. How much should he score in the next test to have an average of 70?
    A. 120
    B. 130
    C. 140
    D. 150
    Answer: C. 140
  4. If one dozen pencils cost 27, then the price of 4 pencils is:
    A. 7
    B. 8
    C. 9
    D. 10
    Answer: C. 9
  5. Out of 500 students, 340 are present. The percentage of absent students is:
    A. 30%
    B. 32%
    C. 34%
    D. 36%
    Answer: B. 32%
  6. A train is moving at a speed of 90 km/h. How much distance will it cover in 12 minutes?
    A. 15 km
    B. 18 km
    C. 20 km
    D. 22 km
    Answer: B. 18 km
  7. If the 15th day of the month is Monday, then the 4th day of the month is:
    A. Tuesday
    B. Wednesday
    C. Thursday
    D. Friday
    Answer: C. Thursday
  8. If the 2nd day of the month is Sunday, then the 23rd day will be:
    A. Sunday
    B. Monday
    C. Tuesday
    D. Wednesday
    Answer: A. Sunday

Biology MCQs

  1. At the depth of __________ or more, a little light is left to power photosynthesis.
    A. 500 feet
    B. 600 feet
    C. 700 feet
    D. 800 feet
    Answer: B. 600 feet
  2. The largest ecosystem on Earth forms about _______ of its surface.
    A. 71%
    B. 75%
    C. 80%
    D. 85%
    Answer: A. 71%
  3. The incidence of stones of calcium phosphate is:
    A. 10%
    B. 15%
    C. 20%
    D. 25%
    Answer: B. 15%
  4. Chronic arthritis includes:
    A. Osteoarthritis
    B. Rheumatoid arthritis
    C. Gouty arthritis
    D. All of them
    Answer: D. All of them
  5. Due to air pollution, we are facing the ____________.
    A. Ozone layer depletion
    B. Global warming
    C. Acid rain
    D. Deforestation
    Answer: A. Ozone layer depletion
  6. The nutrients in an aquatic ecosystem tend to be ___________ near the surface.
    A. Concentrated
    B. Diluted
    C. Absent
    D. Neutral
    Answer: A. Concentrated
  7. Which is not a component of the internal environment of living organisms that may be affected by fluctuations in the external environment?
    A. Light
    B. Temperature
    C. pH
    D. Water
    Answer: A. Light
  8. The ureters of both kidneys drain into the:
    A. Urinary bladder
    B. Urethra
    C. Kidney
    D. Liver
    Answer: A. Urinary bladder
  9. Highly condensed portions of chromatin are called:
    A. Euchromatin
    B. Heterochromatin
    C. Nucleosomes
    D. Chromosomes
    Answer: B. Heterochromatin
  10. Diphtheria is an example of a ____________ disorder.
    A. Genetic
    B. Metabolic
    C. Pathogenic
    D. Hormonal
    Answer: C. Pathogenic
  11. Organisms within the biosphere interact to control:
    A. Chemical conditions of the biosphere
    B. Physical conditions of the biosphere
    C. Both a and b
    D. None of the above
    Answer: C. Both a and b
  12. The prokaryotes may have arisen more than ____________ years ago.
    A. 2.5 billion
    B. 3.5 billion
    C. 4.5 billion
    D. 5.5 billion
    Answer: B. 3.5 billion
  13. Euglena moves with the help of:
    A. Cilia
    B. Flagellum
    C. Pseudopodia
    D. Tentacles
    Answer: B. Flagellum
  14. Which is responsible for sensing pain?
    A. Free nerve endings
    B. Hair follicles
    C. Sweat glands
    D. Melanocytes
    Answer: A. Free nerve endings

Logical Reasoning MCQs

  1. Sister of my brotherโ€™s son is my:
    A. Niece
    B. Nephew
    C. Cousin
    D. Sister
    Answer: A. Niece
  2. If (2 + 2) = 8, then what is the value of (3 + 3)?
    A. 12
    B. 15
    C. 18
    D. 20
    Answer: C. 18
  3. One-third of 120 is:
    A. 30
    B. 40
    C. 50
    D. 60
    Answer: B. 40

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Math and Logical Reasoning MCQs

  1. In a class of 24 students, ยผ are male. What is the percentage of females?
    A. 70%
    B. 75%
    C. 80%
    D. 85%
    Answer: B. 75%
  2. A man walks towards the north, then turns left, then turns right. His present direction is:
    A. North
    B. South
    C. East
    D. West
    Answer: A. North
  3. The third letter when “Augmented” is arranged alphabetically is:
    A. A
    B. E
    C. G
    D. M
    Answer: B. E
  4. An aeroplane flies due to:
    A. Thrust
    B. Lift
    C. Drag
    D. Gravity
    Answer: B. Lift
  5. Vehicle is to wheels as Sound is to:
    A. Waves
    B. Frequency
    C. Amplitude
    D. Pitch
    Answer: A. Waves
  6. A leap year comes after:
    A. 2 years
    B. 3 years
    C. 4 years
    D. 5 years
    Answer: C. 4 years
  7. A train covers 120 km in 1 hour and 40 minutes. How much distance will it cover in 15 minutes?
    A. 20 km
    B. 25 km
    C. 30 km
    D. 35 km
    Answer: C. 30 km
  8. If yesterday was Friday, tomorrow will be:
    A. Saturday
    B. Sunday
    C. Monday
    D. Tuesday
    Answer: B. Sunday
  9. If the 4th day of the month is Sunday, then the 14th day is:
    A. Monday
    B. Tuesday
    C. Wednesday
    D. Thursday
    Answer: A. Monday
  10. A car is moving at 120 km/h. How much distance will it cover in 10 minutes?
    A. 15 km
    B. 20 km
    C. 25 km
    D. 30 km
    Answer: B. 20 km

Biology MCQs

  1. Apical meristems are found at the tips of:
    A. Roots
    B. Shoots
    C. Both a and b
    D. None of them
    Answer: C. Both a and b
  2. To achieve better living conditions, it is essential to:
    A. Increase food production
    B. Decrease expenditure
    C. Control population growth
    D. None of them
    Answer: C. Control population growth
  3. Alzheimer’s disease was discovered in:
    A. 1806
    B. 1877
    C. 1907
    D. 1977
    Answer: C. 1907
  4. A similar group of individuals who can interbreed and produce organisms of their own kind forms a:
    A. Population
    B. Community
    C. Species
    D. Succession
    Answer: C. Species
  5. In the case of human cells, mitosis takes:
    A. 30 seconds
    B. 30 minutes
    C. 3 hours
    D. 3 minutes
    Answer: B. 30 minutes
  6. The thin filament of myofilament has a diameter of:
    A. 7-8 nm
    B. 10-12 nm
    C. 15-20 nm
    D. 25-30 nm
    Answer: A. 7-8 nm
  7. G1 phase is also called:
    A. DNA synthesis phase
    B. Pre-DNA synthesis phase
    C. Post-DNA synthesis phase
    D. Both a and c
    Answer: B. Pre-DNA synthesis phase
  8. The theory of evolution was published in:
    A. 1908
    B. 1809
    C. 1819
    D. 1919
    Answer: B. 1809
  9. At the distal end, the femur forms the knee joint with the proximal end of _______ parallel bones.
    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4
    Answer: B. 2
  10. Crossing over occurs between _____________ of homologous chromosomes.
    A. Sister pair of chromosomes
    B. Sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes
    C. Non-sister chromatids
    D. All of them
    Answer: C. Non-sister chromatids
  11. Xerophytes have adaptations for reduced rates of:
    A. Transduction
    B. Transformation
    C. Transpiration
    D. None of them
    Answer: C. Transpiration
  12. Successive amino acid-bearing tRNAs will bind at:
    A. A-site
    B. B-site
    C. C-site
    D. E-site
    Answer: A. A-site

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Living and Non-Living

  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of living organisms but not of non-living things?
    a) Ability to move
    b) Growth and reproduction
    c) Conductivity
    d) Inertia
    Answer: b) Growth and reproduction

Cell Structure and Function

  1. The powerhouse of the cell is:
    a) Nucleus
    b) Mitochondria
    c) Ribosome
    d) Endoplasmic reticulum
    Answer: b) Mitochondria

Plant Physiology

  1. Photosynthesis primarily occurs in which organelle?
    a) Mitochondria
    b) Chloroplast
    c) Ribosome
    d) Nucleus
    Answer: b) Chloroplast

Animal Physiology

  1. The functional unit of the kidney is called:
    a) Neuron
    b) Alveolus
    c) Nephron
    d) Villus
    Answer: c) Nephron

Reproduction in Plants and Animals

  1. Which type of reproduction results in genetically identical offspring?
    a) Sexual reproduction
    b) Asexual reproduction
    c) Parthenogenesis
    d) Fertilization
    Answer: b) Asexual reproduction

Genetic Basis of Inheritance

  1. Which scientist is known as the “Father of Genetics”?
    a) Charles Darwin
    b) Gregor Mendel
    c) Watson and Crick
    d) Robert Hooke
    Answer: b) Gregor Mendel

Origin and Evolution of Life

  1. The theory of natural selection was proposed by:
    a) Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
    b) Charles Darwin
    c) Alfred Wegener
    d) Louis Pasteur
    Answer: b) Charles Darwin

Human Disorders

  1. Diabetes is caused by the deficiency of:
    a) Insulin
    b) Thyroxine
    c) Hemoglobin
    d) Estrogen
    Answer: a) Insulin

Ecology and Ecosystems

  1. Which of the following is a biotic component of an ecosystem?
    a) Sunlight
    b) Water
    c) Soil
    d) Plants
    Answer: d) Plants

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Units and Measurements

  1. The SI unit of force is:
    a) Newton
    b) Joule
    c) Watt
    d) Pascal
    Answer: a) Newton

Mechanics

  1. Newtonโ€™s First Law is also known as the law of:
    a) Acceleration
    b) Inertia
    c) Momentum
    d) Energy conservation
    Answer: b) Inertia

Heat Transfer

  1. The transfer of heat through direct contact is called:
    a) Conduction
    b) Convection
    c) Radiation
    d) Sublimation
    Answer: a) Conduction

Vibrations and Waves

  1. Sound waves are:
    a) Longitudinal waves
    b) Transverse waves
    c) Electromagnetic waves
    d) Mechanical waves
    Answer: a) Longitudinal waves

Light and Sound

  1. The speed of light in vacuum is approximately:
    a) 3 ร— 10โถ m/s
    b) 3 ร— 10โท m/s
    c) 3 ร— 10โธ m/s
    d) 3 ร— 10โน m/s
    Answer: c) 3 ร— 10โธ m/s

Electricity and Magnetism

  1. The unit of electric current is:
    a) Coulomb
    b) Volt
    c) Ohm
    d) Ampere
    Answer: d) Ampere

Modern Physics

  1. The scientist who proposed the theory of relativity was:
    a) Isaac Newton
    b) Albert Einstein
    c) Galileo Galilei
    d) Nikola Tesla
    Answer: b) Albert Einstein

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The Atomic Structure

  1. The central part of an atom is called:
    a) Proton
    b) Electron
    c) Nucleus
    d) Neutron
    Answer: c) Nucleus

Chemical Bonding

  1. Ionic bonds are formed by:
    a) Sharing of electrons
    b) Transfer of electrons
    c) Sharing of protons
    d) Transfer of neutrons
    Answer: b) Transfer of electrons

States of Matter

  1. Matter exists in how many fundamental states?
    a) Two
    b) Three
    c) Four
    d) Five
    Answer: c) Four

The Periodic Table

  1. The most electronegative element is:
    a) Oxygen
    b) Fluorine
    c) Chlorine
    d) Neon
    Answer: b) Fluorine

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Synonyms

  1. Choose the synonym of “Eloquent”:
    a) Fluent
    b) Silent
    c) Confused
    d) Weak
    Answer: a) Fluent

Antonyms

  1. Choose the antonym of “Optimistic”:
    a) Hopeful
    b) Positive
    c) Pessimistic
    d) Cheerful
    Answer: c) Pessimistic

Idioms and Phrases

  1. “Bite the bullet” means:
    a) To refuse an order
    b) To face a difficult situation bravely
    c) To argue aggressively
    d) To escape from trouble
    Answer: b) To face a difficult situation bravely

Active and Passive Voice

  1. Choose the passive form of “She wrote a letter”:
    a) A letter is written by her.
    b) A letter was written by her.
    c) A letter has been written by her.
    d) A letter was writing by her.
    Answer: b) A letter was written by her.

Spelling

  1. Choose the correct spelling:
    a) Accomodate
    b) Accommodate
    c) Acommodate
    d) Acomadate
    Answer: b) Accommodate

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English Tests Quiz

1 / 25

Media _____ a very constructive role for a society:-

2 / 25

I can not do anything until I_____ my lunch:-

3 / 25

Choose the correct preposition:-

Your speech was not relevant _____ the topic.

4 / 25

Choose the correct word to fill the blank;-

I decided to sell a piece of land when I was offered a more ______price.

5 / 25

Choose the accurate meaning of the underlined word :-

I made up my mind to risk my career.

6 / 25

FILL THE BLANK WITH APPROPRIATE CONJUNCTION.

-----------you try, you will not succeed.

7 / 25

Choose the accurate antonym of the word (Obnoxious):-

8 / 25

DISTINGUISH THE PREPOSTION FROM ADVERB IN THE FOLLOWING SENTENCE.

We all went in.

9 / 25

Choose the accurate antonym of the word (Flippant):-

10 / 25

CHOOSE CORRECT FORM OF VERB FOR THE FOLLOWING:-

I ____ the house before it started raining.

11 / 25

Choose the accurate antonym of the word (Fragile):-

12 / 25

CHOOSE THE CORRECT FORM OF VERB FOR THE FOLLOWING:-

I shall have _____ writing this novel by June next year.

 

13 / 25

FILL THE BLANK WITH APPROPRIATE CONJUNCTION.

Wait ------------I return.

14 / 25

The synonym of 'Only' is:-

15 / 25

Some are born great. The underline word is a/an_____:-

16 / 25

Choose the accurate antonym of the word (Knowledge):-

17 / 25

Choose the correct word to fill the blank:-

A good lawyer will argue only what is central to an issue,ย  eliminating ______ information which might jeopardize the client.

18 / 25

He ___ in the sun for an hour:-

19 / 25

We had not ____ him before:-

20 / 25

The farmer was ploughing the field when it ___ raining:-

21 / 25

Choose the correct preposition for the following:-

This work is not _____ my state.

22 / 25

CHOOSE WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ARE ADVERB PHRASES AND WHICH ARE ADJECTIVE PHRASES.

 

It usually goes to Peshawar,Sir.

23 / 25

How long ago you ____ here;-

24 / 25

Ashfaq Ahmad was a famous writer. The underline word is a/an_____:-

25 / 25

Choose the accurate meaning of the word (addiction):-

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  • Past Papers Questions of AFNS Tests (Download)

FAQs about AFNS Tests and Jobs

  1. Is there any test for AFNS?
    Yes, the AFNS (Armed Forces Nursing Services) entry process includes an initial test, interview, and medical examination. To prepare, you can use AFNS Practice Tests Online based on past papers.
  2. How much merit is required for AFNS?
    The merit for AFNS depends on your academic scores, test performance, and interview. Generally, a high score in FSc (Pre-Medical) and the initial test is crucial.
  3. How many marks are required for army nursing?
    To qualify for AFNS, you need at least 60% marks in FSc (Pre-Medical) and a competitive score in the initial test. Higher marks increase your chances of selection.
  4. What is a verbal and non-verbal intelligence test?
    A verbal intelligence test assesses language-based reasoning, while a non-verbal test evaluates problem-solving through visual patterns. Both are part of the AFNS initial test.
  5. What is the syllabus for the AFNS initial test?
    The AFNS initial test covers Biology, Chemistry, Physics, English, and Intelligence (verbal and non-verbal). Use AFNS Practice Tests Online for effective preparation.
  6. Can I prepare for AFNS without coaching?
    Yes, you can prepare using AFNS Practice Tests Online and past papers. Self-study with the right resources is sufficient for success.
  7. What is the age limit for AFNS?
    The age limit for AFNS is 17-25 years. Candidates must meet this criterion to apply.
  8. Is there negative marking in the AFNS test?
    No, there is no negative marking in the AFNS initial test, so attempt all questions confidently.
  9. How can I improve my chances of selection in AFNS?
    Focus on thorough preparation using AFNS Practice Tests Online, past papers, and consistent study of the syllabus.
  10. What is the role of an AFNS nurse?
    AFNS nurses provide medical care in military hospitals, support armed forces personnel, and serve during emergencies or conflicts.

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