Why the AFNS Test Sample is Essential for Pakistan Army Aspirants
The AFNS Test Sample is an invaluable resource for aspiring candidates looking to join the Pakistan Army through the Armed Forces Nursing Services (AFNS). Recognized as one of the most prestigious and fulfilling careers in Pakistan, joining the AFNS is a dream for many. To excel in the initial tests, past papers and MCQs from the AFNS Test Sample provide a comprehensive preparation platform, helping candidates familiarize themselves with the exam pattern, question types, and key topics.
These samples are particularly beneficial for building confidence and improving performance, ensuring a strong start in the journey toward securing this esteemed position in the Pakistan Army.
How to Effectively Use AFNS Test Sample Past Papers for Preparation
- In motion of satellites, necessary centripetal force is provided by:
a) Gravitational Force
b) Coulomb’s force
c) Magnetic force
d) Nuclear force
Correct Answer: A) Gravitational Force - In ripple tank, 40 waves pass through a certain point in one second. If the wavelength of the waves is 5cm, then find the speed of the wave:
a) 2.7 m/s
b) 3 m/s
c) 200 m/s
d) 2 m/s
Correct Answer: D) 2 m/s - The product of frequency and time period is equal to:
a) 2
b) 3
c) 0
d) 1
Correct Answer: D) 1 - Trough in a wave acts as:
a) Concave lens
b) Convex lens
c) Convex mirror
d) Plane mirror
Correct Answer: A) Concave lens - In the Doppler effect, if a listener moves towards a stationary source, the:
a) Observed frequency is greater than the original frequency
b) Observed frequency is less than the original frequency
c) Observed frequency is equal to the original frequency
d) Observed frequency is independent of the original frequency
Correct Answer: A) Observed frequency is greater than the original frequency - Refrigerator is an example of:
a) First law of thermodynamics
b) Second law of thermodynamics
c) Newton’s law of motion
d) Entropy
Correct Answer: B) Second law of thermodynamics - In a certain process, 400J of heat energy is supplied to a system, and at the same time, 150J of work is done by the system. The increase in internal energy of the system is:
a) 150J
b) 300J
c) 250J
d) 500J
Correct Answer: C) 250J - The rapid escape of air from a burst tire is an example of:
a) Isothermal
b) Adiabatic
c) Isobaric
d) Isochoric
Correct Answer: B) Adiabatic - The bicycle works on the principle of:
a) 1st law of thermodynamics
b) 2nd law of thermodynamics
c) Law of conservation of energy
d) Law of entropy
Correct Answer: A) 1st law of thermodynamics - Two positive point charges are placed 2m apart. The electric potential at the mid-point due to these two charges will be:
a) Added to double
b) Reduced to half
c) Remains the same (no effect)
d) Cancel each other’s effect
Correct Answer: A) Added to double - Which one of the following is the angle of projection of a projectile if its range is equal to its height?
a) 48°
b) 60°
c) 90°
d) 76°
Correct Answer: D) 76° - The product of force and time is equal to:
a) Angular momentum
b) Force
c) Change in momentum
d) Velocity
Correct Answer: C) Change in momentum
Key Topics Covered in the AFNS Test Sample MCQs
- The time rate of change of linear momentum of a body is equal to:
a) Force
b) Momentum
c) Power
d) Acceleration
Correct Answer: A) Force - A 10N force moves a body around a circular path of radius 50cm. What is the work done in completing one revolution?
a) 5J
b) Zero
c) 31.42J
d) 500J
Correct Answer: B) Zero - A 3kg stone falls from a 20m high platform. Find its falling speed at 10m height.
a) 196 m/s
b) 14 m/s
c) 10 m/s
d) 100 m/s
Correct Answer: B) 14 m/s - The area under the force-displacement graph gives us:
a) Displacement
b) Power
c) Work
d) Acceleration
Correct Answer: C) Work - Kilowatt-hour is the unit of:
a) Electric energy
b) Power
c) Momentum
d) Torque
Correct Answer: A) Electric energy - The food we eat in one day has the same energy as:
a) 0.33 liter of petrol
b) 1 liter of petrol
c) 0.5 liter of petrol
d) 2 liters of petrol
Correct Answer: A) 0.33 liter of petrol - One complete circle is equal to:
a) 2 radians
b) 3 radians
c) 5 radians
d) 6 radians
Correct Answer: D) 6 radians - Red light is used in photographic dark rooms because of:
a) More frequency, less wavelength
b) Less frequency, less wavelength
c) Less frequency, more wavelength
d) More frequency, more wavelength
Correct Answer: C) Less frequency, more wavelength - For gaining an atomic spectrum, an evacuated glass tube is filled with:
a) Neon
b) Hydrogen
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Sulphur dioxide
Correct Answer: B) Hydrogen - During the production of X-rays, the cathode and anode are enclosed inside an evacuated glass chamber, and a high DC voltage of the order of:
a) 1000V is maintained
b) 10,000V is maintained
c) 25,000V is maintained
d) 50,000V is maintained
Correct Answer: A) 1000V is maintained - The half-life of Iodine-131 is 8 days. If 20mg is present initially, how much iodine is left behind after 2 half-lives?
a) 10mg
b) 5mg
c) 2.5mg
d) 1.25mg
Correct Answer: B) 5mg - 4.5 × 10^9 is the half-life of:
a) U234
b) U235
c) U236
d) C14
Correct Answer: C) U236 - When a charge “Q” on a capacitor is doubled, then the energy stored “U” will be:
a) 2U
b) 3U
c) U/2
d) 4U
Correct Answer: D) 4U - By increasing the area of the plates and decreasing the distance between them, the capacitance of the capacitor:
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains unchanged
d) Depends upon temperature
Correct Answer: A) Increases - If we double the separation between two charges, Coulomb’s force will become:
a) Doubled
b) Half
c) 4-times
d) 1/4th
Correct Answer: D) 1/4th - The power of an electric bulb is 100W. It is connected to a 110V power supply. The resistance of the electric bulb will be:
a) 110 ohm
b) 121 ohm
c) 20 ohm
d) 200 ohm
Correct Answer: B) 121 ohm - Terminal Voltage “V1” of the battery is greater than the EMF of the battery when:
a) The battery is charging
b) The battery is discharging
c) The battery is connected with R
d) The battery is connected with a voltmeter
Correct Answer: A) The battery is charging - The temperature coefficient of the semiconductor is negative because:
a) Resistance increases with an increase in temperature
b) Resistance decreases with an increase in temperature
c) Resistance decreases with a decrease in temperature
d) Resistance remains the same with an increase in temperature
Correct Answer: B) Resistance decreases with an increase in temperature - If the length of a wire becomes two times its original value and the area becomes one-half of its original value, then the resistance of the wire becomes:
a) Doubled
b) Four times
c) One-half
d) One-fourth
Correct Answer: B) Four times - The unit of resistivity is:
a) Ohm
b) Ohm meter
c) Ohm/meter
d) Meter/Ohm
Correct Answer: B) Ohm meter - 1 kilowatt-hour =
a) 1.6 × 10^-19 J
b) 3.6 × 10^6 J
c) 9.1 × 10^-31 J
d) 1.67 × 10^-27 J
Correct Answer: B) 3.6 × 10^6 J - It is a null-type resistance device for measuring potential differences:
a) Galvanometer
b) Ohmmeter
c) Ammeter
d) Potentiometer
Correct Answer: D) Potentiometer - Which statement is true about electron affinity?
a) The value of electron affinity is always positive
b) The value of electron affinity is always negative
c) The value of the first electron affinity is always positive
d) The value of the first electron affinity is always negative
Correct Answer: D) The value of the first electron affinity is always negative - The bond which is based on attractive forces between oppositely charged ions is:
a) Covalent bond
b) Dative bond
c) Ionic bond
d) Metallic bond
Correct Answer: C) Ionic bond - Which statement is incorrect regarding a chemical bond?
a) Bond is formed by the overlapping of half-filled orbitals
b) Bond is formed by the attraction of positive and negative ions
c) Bond is formed by the overlapping of “s” orbital is strong
d) Bond formed by the large size atoms is strong
Correct Answer: D) Bond formed by the large size atoms is strong - The carbonates of alkali metals are soluble in water except:
a) K2CO3
b) Li2CO3
c) Na2CO3
d) Rb2CO3
Correct Answer: B) Li2CO3 - The nitrides of alkaline earth metals hydrolyze with water to form:
a) NH3
b) H2
c) N2
d) NO
Correct Answer: A) NH3 - The flame color of Ca in the flame test is:
a) Orange-red
b) Golden yellow
c) Red
d) Pink
Correct Answer: A) Orange-red - Which of the following is the most stable metal carbonate?
a) BaCO3
b) MgCO3
c) CaCO3
d) SrCO3
Correct Answer: A) BaCO3
Related: Apply Online to Join Pak Army through AFNS
Tips to Ace the Initial Tests with AFNS Test Sample Practice
Q. The binding energy of transition metals increases up to which group?
a) IIB
b) IVB
c) IIIB
d) VIB
Correct Answer: b) IVB
Q. Isomerism due to shifting of a proton from one atom to another in the same molecule is known as:
a) Metamerism
b) Tautomerism
c) Position isomerism
d) Functional isomerism
Correct Answer: b) Tautomerism
Q. so-Butyl alcohol has which type of carbon attached to the hydroxyl group?
a) Tertiary
b) Secondary
c) Quaternary
d) Primary
Correct Answer: d) Primary
Q. Oxidation of alcohols gives:
a) Amines
b) Alkanes
c) Aldehydes
d) Alkynes
Correct Answer: c) Aldehydes
Q. Butanone on oxidation with K₂Cr₂O₇/H₂SO₄ forms:
a) Acetic acid
b) Acetic acid and ethane
c) Methane and propanoic acid
d) Propanoic acid and methanoic acid
Correct Answer: a) Acetic acid
Q. Hydrolysis of nitriles produces:
a) Carboxylic acid
b) Aldehydes
c) Ketones
d) Esters
Correct Answer: a) Carboxylic acid
Q. Acetic anhydride is formed from acetic acid due to:
a) Dehydration
b) Reduction
c) Oxidation
d) Esterification
Correct Answer: a) Dehydration
Q. Which enzyme level is raised in rickets?
a) Lactic dehydrogenase
b) LDH-I
c) Phosphatase
d) Alkaline phosphatase
Correct Answer: d) Alkaline phosphatase
Q. For a gaseous reaction, an increase in pressure will shift equilibrium in the direction of:
a) Decreased concentration
b) Increased concentration
c) Decreased volume
d) Increased volume
Correct Answer: c) Decreased volume
Q. An acidic buffer consists of:
a) A strong acid and its salt with a weak base
b) A weak acid and its salt with a strong base
c) A strong acid and its salt with a strong base
d) A weak acid and its salt with a weak base
Correct Answer: b) A weak acid and its salt with a strong base
Q. The pH of human blood is maintained between:
a) 7.35 to 7.45
b) 7.55 to 7.65
c) 7.00 to 7.25
d) 7.85 to 7.95
Correct Answer: a) 7.35 to 7.45
Q. The buffer solution is not formed for:
a) NH₄OH + NH₄Cl
b) CH₃COOH + CH₃COONa
c) C₆H₅COOH + C₆H₅COONa
d) HCl + NaCl
Correct Answer: d) HCl + NaCl
Q. In the reaction H₂ + CO₂ ⇌ H₂O + CO, decreasing the concentration of CO₂ will shift the equilibrium:
a) Towards the left
b) Towards the right
c) No change in equilibrium
d) Equilibrium shifts in both directions
Correct Answer: a) Towards the left
Q. At equilibrium, the concentration of reactants and products becomes:
a) Zero
b) Equal
c) Constant
d) Infinite
Correct Answer: c) Constant
Q. The effect of temperature on the rate of a reaction is given by:
a) Henderson’s equation
b) General gas equation
c) Arrhenius equation
d) Van der Waal’s equation
Correct Answer: c) Arrhenius equation
Q. In a reversible reaction, a catalyst lowers the activation energy of:
a) The forward reaction
b) The reverse reaction
c) Both forward and reverse reactions
d) The forward reaction but increases that of the reverse reaction
Correct Answer: c) Both forward and reverse reactions
Q. The rate of a reaction:
a) Increases as the reaction proceeds
b) Decreases as the reaction proceeds
c) Remains the same as the reaction proceeds
d) The forward reaction increases but the reverse reaction decreases
Correct Answer: b) Decreases as the reaction proceeds
Where to Find Reliable AFNS Test Sample Resources Online
Q. A 0.5 molar solution of NaOH contains:
a) 40g NaOH in one dm³
b) 80g NaOH in one dm³
c) 10g NaOH in one dm³
d) 20g NaOH in one dm³
Correct Answer: d) 20g NaOH in one dm³
Q. The breakdown of a substance with an electric current is called:
a) Thermolysis
b) Catalysis
c) Electrolysis
d) Photolysis
Correct Answer: c) Electrolysis
Q. Which of the following is a balanced redox equation?
a) Na + Fe³⁺ → Na¹⁺ + Fe
b) Zn + Ag¹⁺ → Zn²⁺ + Ag
c) 3Na + Fe³⁺ → 3Na¹⁺ + Fe
d) 2Zn + Ag¹⁺ → 2Zn²⁺ + Ag
Correct Answer: c) 3Na + Fe³⁺ → 3Na¹⁺ + Fe
Q. Stronger the oxidizing agent, greater is the:
a) Oxidation potential
b) Reduction potential
c) Redox potential
d) EMF of the cell
Correct Answer: b) Reduction potential
Q. The type of bonding in sodium (Na) is:
a) Metallic
b) Ionic
c) Covalent
d) Co-ordinate covalent
Correct Answer: a) Metallic
Q. Which halogen molecule has the maximum bond energy?
a) F-F
b) Cl-Cl
c) Br-Br
d) I-I
Correct Answer: b) Cl-Cl
Q. Half atmospheric pressure is:
a) 400 torr
b) 50622 Pa
c) 101.3 Pa
d) 8.5 pounds
Correct Answer: b) 50622 Pa
Q. The standard temperature and pressure (STP) for one mole of any ideal gas is:
a) 273.16 K and 1 atm
b) 0°C & 1 mm Hg
c) 273.16°C and 1 atm
d) 0 K & 1 atm
Correct Answer: a) 273.16 K and 1 atm
Q. The equation PV = nRT represents:
a) Dalton’s law
b) Avogadro’s law
c) General gas equation
d) Van der Waal’s equation
Correct Answer: c) General gas equation
Q. At constant pressure, at which temperature will the volume of a gas become twice the volume at 0°C?
a) 546°C
b) 200°C
c) 546 K
d) 273°C
Correct Answer: d) 273°C
Q. A graph between volume and temperature gives a straight line which cuts the temperature axis at:
a) 0°C
b) 273°C
c) 546°C
d) -273°C
Correct Answer: d) -273°C
Q. Which statement is NOT true for the effusion of gases?
a) Movement of particles through a small opening
b) Movement of particles from high pressure to low pressure
c) Movement of particles due to escaping tendency one by one
d) Movement of particles due to collisions among themselves
Correct Answer: d) Movement of particles due to collisions among themselves
Q. Vapor pressure is independent of:
a) Temperature
b) Intermolecular forces
c) Density of liquid
d) Surface area of liquid
Correct Answer: d) Surface area of liquid
Q. Solid water (ice) expands ____ times when compared with the same volume of liquid water.
a) 9
b) 5
c) 6
d) 2
Correct Answer: a) 9
Q. Molar heat of vaporization is the amount of heat required to convert one mole of:
a) A liquid into its vapor at its boiling point
b) A liquid into its vapor
c) A solid into vapor
d) A solid into liquid at its melting point
Correct Answer: a) A liquid into its vapor at its boiling point
Q. At the transition temperature of a crystalline solid, the substance exists:
a) In its most stable geometrical form
b) In both solid and liquid states
c) In dynamic equilibrium between two crystalline forms
d) In one solid geometrical form only
Correct Answer: c) In dynamic equilibrium between two crystalline forms
Q. Some substances lack definite heats of fusion. These substances are:
a) Isomorphs
b) Polymorphs
c) Amorphous solids
d) Crystalline solids
Correct Answer: c) Amorphous solids
Q. The thermal conductivity of metals is due to:
a) Layered structure of metals
b) Freely moving electrons
c) Loosely held metal atoms
d) Vibrational movement of metal atoms
Correct Answer: b) Freely moving electrons
Q. Ice floats on water because of:
a) Large body length
b) Cubic structure of ice
c) Weak intermolecular forces
d) Empty spaces in the structure of ice
Correct Answer: d) Empty spaces in the structure of ice
Q. When the number of moles of reactants and products are equal in a reversible reaction, which parameter does not affect equilibrium?
a) Temperature
b) Pressure
c) Volume
d) Catalyst
Correct Answer: b) Pressure
Q. Which factor helps equilibrium to be attained earlier?
a) Temperature
b) Pressure
c) Concentration
d) Catalyst
Correct Answer: d) Catalyst
Q. Many elements have fractional atomic masses because:
a) The mass of the atom is itself fractional
b) Atomic masses are the average masses of isobars
c) Atomic masses are the average masses of isotopes
d) Atomic masses are the average masses of isotopes proportional to their abundance
Correct Answer: d) Atomic masses are the average masses of isotopes proportional to their abundance
Q. The mass of 1 molecule of O₂ is:
a) 6.02 × 10²³ g / 32
b) 32 / 6.02 × 10²³ g
c) 32 g
d) 0.32 g
Correct Answer: b) 32 / 6.02 × 10²³ g
Q. The number of moles of CO₂ that contain 8g of oxygen is:
a) 1.0
b) 4.50
c) 0.50
d) 0.25
Correct Answer: d) 0.25
Q. Identify the correct pair of compounds with the same empirical formula:
a) H₂O & H₂O₂
b) C₆H₁₂ & C₆H₆
c) H₂S₂O₃ & H₂SO₄
d) C₆H₁₂O₆ & CH₃COOH
Correct Answer: d) C₆H₁₂O₆ & CH₃COOH
Online past Papers of AFNS Tests Quiz
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FAQs about AFNS Tests and Jobs
- Is there any written test in AFNS?
Yes, there is a written test in AFNS, which includes MCQs from subjects like English, Biology, Chemistry, and Physics. - How much merit is required for AFNS?
The merit for AFNS is determined by your academic scores, test performance, and interview. Generally, a minimum of 60% in FSc (Pre-Medical) is required. - What is the salary of AFNS?
The starting salary of an AFNS nurse is approximately PKR 50,000 to PKR 60,000 per month, along with additional allowances and benefits. - What is the duty of AFNS?
The duty of AFNS nurses includes providing medical care to soldiers and their families, assisting in surgeries, managing healthcare facilities, and serving in military hospitals.
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